Did Jesus cease being God's Son on the Cross? 2

[JesusFan]

You ate just tossing up passages to see 8f they stick. This one doesn't either.

Read Isaiah 53. There are parts of it you deny (as evidenced by your understanding of Jesus being forsaken).

Nowhere in Isaiah 53 is God said to judge Jesus as a sinner. The people erroneous judged Jesus as stricken by God, but He was saving them (there is a contrast in the passage).

Try again Hero. This time type out the oart that says God judged Jesus as a sinner.

God the Father judged us in Christ Jesus for our sins, that is why he was the sin bearer upon that Cross

We were reconciled by Christ's death, saved by His life.

On the Cross God was reconciling mankind to Himself, not counting their sins against them. On this basis we urge men to be reconciled to God. The lost are condemned because the Light has come into the World and they rejected the Light because their deeds were evil. They remain in their sins, but their condemnation is Christ-centered.

How was thje wrath of God appeased then while Jesus was upon that Cross? Was Jesus enduring exactly what?

 

[JonC]

God the Father judged us in Christ Jesus for our sins, that is why he was the sin bearer upon that Cross


How was thje wrath of God appeased then while Jesus was upon that Cross? Was Jesus enduring exactly what?

The problem with your claim that "God the Father judged us in Christ Jesus for our sins..." is tgat it is nowhere in God's Word. It is an unbiblical claim. That is why all you can do is keep repeating the claim but provide no Biblical support.

Each of us have to decide who we will follow. I choose God and His Word.

The wrath of God does not need to be appeased. God is not a child. That idea is pagan.

Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin ("sin begats death").

I suggest you spend a little more time in God's Word and a little less time in man's theories.

 

[5 point Gillinist]

The problem with your claim that "God the Father judged us in Christ Jesus for our sins..." is tgat it is nowhere in God's Word. It is an unbiblical claim. That is why all you can do is keep repeating the claim but provide no Biblical support.

Each of us have to decide who we will follow. I choose God and His Word.

The wrath of God does not need to be appeased. God is not a child. That idea is pagan.

Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin ("sin begats death").

I suggest you spend a little more time in God's Word and a little less time in man's theories.

Isaiah 53:4-6 explicitly state this. Having seen your arguments against God's wrath NOT being what Christ died for, I can only come to the conclusion that "the bible doesn't use the word wrath" is the sum and substance of your argument. The bible speaks throughout it's pages of God's wrath against sinners for their sin. What does "Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin" even mean in your worldview?

 

[JonC]

Isaiah 53:4-6 explicitly state this. Having seen your arguments against God's wrath NOT being what Christ died for, I can only come to the conclusion that "the bible doesn't use the word wrath" is the sum and substance of your argument. The bible speaks throughout it's pages of God's wrath against sinners for their sin. What does "Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin" even mean in your worldview?

No, Isaiah 53:4-6 does not explicitly state that. You believe the verses teach that...but it is certainly not stated.

We need to be more careful when dealing with Scripture. Too many Calvinists try to take the short cut by saying their theory is "stated" in Scripture when it 8s not.

I believe that Jesus bearing our sins, enduring the consequences of our sins means exactly that. Jesus bore our sins. Sin begats death. Jesus suffered what our sins produce (the "wages" of sin).

I do not automatically add to those passages. I also do not deny passages explicitly stating that sins cannot be transferred, that God will forgive based on repentance, that God will never abandon the righteous, that God will not condemn the righteous, etc.

 

[JesusFan]

The problem with your claim that "God the Father judged us in Christ Jesus for our sins..." is tgat it is nowhere in God's Word. It is an unbiblical claim. That is why all you can do is keep repeating the claim but provide no Biblical support.

Each of us have to decide who we will follow. I choose God and His Word.

The wrath of God does not need to be appeased. God is not a child. That idea is pagan.

Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin ("sin begats death").

I suggest you spend a little more time in God's Word and a little less time in man's theories.

So a Holy God getting upset and angry and having wrath towards sins and sinners is "pagan and childish then?"

 

[JesusFan]

Isaiah 53:4-6 explicitly state this. Having seen your arguments against God's wrath NOT being what Christ died for, I can only come to the conclusion that "the bible doesn't use the word wrath" is the sum and substance of your argument. The bible speaks throughout it's pages of God's wrath against sinners for their sin. What does "Jesus was bearing our sin, enduring the wages or consequences of our sin" even mean in your worldview?

Jesus had to partake of those cups of wrath and judgement, and if even the Holy Son of God was reacting to just how bad that would be, how much more shall lost sinners' face when experience divine wrath of a Holy God?

 

[JesusFan]

No, Isaiah 53:4-6 does not explicitly state that. You believe the verses teach that...but it is certainly not stated.

We need to be more careful when dealing with Scripture. Too many Calvinists try to take the short cut by saying their theory is "stated" in Scripture when it 8s not.

I believe that Jesus bearing our sins, enduring the consequences of our sins means exactly that. Jesus bore our sins. Sin begats death. Jesus suffered what our sins produce (the "wages" of sin).

I do not automatically add to those passages. I also do not deny passages explicitly stating that sins cannot be transferred, that God will forgive based on repentance, that God will never abandon the righteous, that God will not condemn the righteous, etc.

You refuse to accept that Christ while upon that Cross experienced and tasted all that the lost will in their final judgement state

 

[JonC]

Jesus had to partake of those cups of wrath and judgement, and if even the Holy Son of God was reacting to just how bad that would be, how much more shall lost sinners' face when experience divine wrath of a Holy God?

But that is not in the Bible.

Why do you believe that Scripture is incomplete when it comes to something so important as redemption?

 

[JonC]

You refuse to accept that Christ while upon that Cross experienced and tasted all that the lost will in their final judgement state

Yes, because I believe the Bible.

That is the difference between you and I.

I believe that God's Word is perfect and complete. When I read about redemption in the Bible I do n9t find it lacking. It makes perfect sense to me.