Why was Christ's baptism so important?

[abcgrad94]

I've heard and read the story of Christ's baptism many times, but for some reason this thought recently struck me. Why was this baptism so very important? It must have HUGE significance or else God wouldn't have spoken from heaven (something he did again when Christ was on the mount of transfiguration.)

I know the baptism was an act showing his obedience to the cross. Is that really all, though? God didn't speak from heaven when Christ turned the water to wine, raised Lazarus, or healed the sick.

Any ideas on why Christ's baptism was of such importance?

 

[blackbird]

Folks were lined up there at Jordan being baptized by John "for the remission of sin"

But yet Jesus had no sin to be remitted

I believe the Apostle Paul gives us a clue in Romans 6---associating Jesus' very baptism to His very death!

 

[Aaron]

What was Christ's answer when John forbad His baptism?

 

[Old Union Brother]

What was Christ's answer when John forbad His baptism?

Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

 

[preachinjesus]

It was the public commissioning of Christ's redemptive mission.

It is important because it inaugurated the era of God's rescue of the world. Just as the Cross and Resurrection are the climax of Christ's ministry this marks the beginning of His public ministry which leads to the most significant event in history.

 

[Jim1999]

in John 1:35 John the Baptist encouraged his disciples to follow Jesus: "Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples; and looking upon Jesus as He walked, he said, Behold the Lamb of God! And the two disciples heard him speak, and they followed Jesus........."

1 Peter 2:22 Tells us, "Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth....(24) who His own self bare our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, being dead to our sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes you are healed...."

Jesus was baptized as an example, that all would follow Him in salvation and the public example of water baptism. If we try to make any more of this, we will find ourselves in very deep theological water.

Cheers,

Jim

 

[psalms109:31]

Fulfill His priesthood

Fulfill His priesthood

Exodus 40:
12 “Bring Aaron and his sons to the entrance to the tent of meeting and wash them with water. 13 Then dress Aaron in the sacred garments, anoint him and consecrate him so he may serve me as priest. 14 Bring his sons and dress them in tunics. 15 Anoint them just as you anointed their father, so they may serve me as priests. Their anointing will be to a priesthood that will continue throughout their generations.” 16 Moses did everything just as the LORD commanded him.

 

[The Archangel]

Fulfill His priesthood

Exodus 40:
12 “Bring Aaron and his sons to the entrance to the tent of meeting and wash them with water. 13 Then dress Aaron in the sacred garments, anoint him and consecrate him so he may serve me as priest. 14 Bring his sons and dress them in tunics. 15 Anoint them just as you anointed their father, so they may serve me as priests. Their anointing will be to a priesthood that will continue throughout their generations.” 16 Moses did everything just as the LORD commanded him.

This is a VERY interesting thought. But I think it must be shown to be wrong for several reasons:

1. Jesus was not a Levitical priest, He was a priest after the order of Melchizedek. Therefore the Levitical symbols of priesthood (washings etc.) wouldn't have applied to Him.

2. The reason for the "ordination" of Levitical priests being concerned with washing with water is because the Levitical priests were mere humans. Jesus was no mere human and the "washing" that was supposed to take away the sins (symbolically, in a manner of speaking) of the Levitical priests would not have been necessary for Jesus, being that He was sinless.

In short, I'm not sure the baptism was for any type of "priesthood" reason. So, while your thought is very interesting to me, under evaluation, I don't think it is accurate.

Blessings,

The Archangel

 

[Tom Butler]

Just as we identify with the Lord Jesus at our baptism, Jesus identified himself with John's ministry and message.

 

[psalms109:31]

Priest

This is a VERY interesting thought. But I think it must be shown to be wrong for several reasons:

1. Jesus was not a Levitical priest, He was a priest after the order of Melchizedek. Therefore the Levitical symbols of priesthood (washings etc.) wouldn't have applied to Him.

2. The reason for the "ordination" of Levitical priests being concerned with washing with water is because the Levitical priests were mere humans. Jesus was no mere human and the "washing" that was supposed to take away the sins (symbolically, in a manner of speaking) of the Levitical priests would not have been necessary for Jesus, being that He was sinless.

In short, I'm not sure the baptism was for any type of "priesthood" reason. So, while your thought is very interesting to me, under evaluation, I don't think it is accurate.

Blessings,

The Archangel

We must see Christ as a priest of God with no beginning or end, but we also see Him as a priest of men and we follow Him in this baptism to enter into our priesthood, ultimately the true baptism comes from God. I see Jesus as the son of God, but He is also the son of man.

 

[ktn4eg]

Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

I've often used Christ's baptism when witnessing to folks who are counting on their baptism to get them to heaven. The verse quoted establishes the fact that baptism (among other things) is a work of righteousness.

Titus 3:5-6 states that "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour."

 

[The Archangel]

We must see Christ as a priest of God with no beginning or end, but we also see Him as a priest of men and we follow Him in this baptism to enter into our priesthood, ultimately the true baptism comes from God. I see Jesus as the son of God, but He is also the son of man.

OK.

But, this has nothing to do with what I posted or what you originally posted.

The fact of the matter remains: What you posted is for the Levitical priesthood and Jesus is not a Levitical priest. Remember, Jesus is from the tribe of Judah and the priesthood was reserved for the tribe of Levi. So, Jesus isn't even qualified to be a priest under the Law. Therefore, the priestly ritual you described cannot apply to Him.

The Archangel

 

[psalms109:31]

Priest

Matthew 3:
15 Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.” Then John consented.

I was looking for the fulfillment of righteousnes and why Jesus did get baptized. Many things He did is to fulfill the scripture. Have you found something better why He was baptized to fulfill this righteousness that He was already? That scripture is what I found.

If you don't like it, it was your choice to do, but I am interested in looking what others have found.

 

[Aaron]

Jesus was baptized as an example, that all would follow Him in salvation and the public example of water baptism. If we try to make any more of this, we will find ourselves in very deep theological water.

Cheers,

Jim

Also as our substitute.

 

[The Archangel]

Matthew 3:
15 Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.” Then John consented.

I was looking for the fulfillment of righteousnes and why Jesus did get baptized. Many things He did is to fulfill the scripture. Have you found something better why He was baptized to fulfill this righteousness that He was already? That scripture is what I found.

If you don't like it, it was your choice to do, but I am interested in looking what others have found.

I'm sorry, but I do not understand what you are saying. Please interact with my post.

The Archangel

 

[psalms109:31]

Post

I'm sorry, but I do not understand what you are saying. Please interact with my post.

The Archangel

I don't know how else to put it. Maybe we two are looking at things at different viewpoints. I am trying to find out what Christ fulfillment of all righteousness is and what I came up with. You are talking about a line of priesthood. I am looking for the fulfillment of all righteousness that I find in scripture. What scripture He is fulfilling by being baptized for this righteousness He already has. I don't remember Melchizedek having done a washing or baptizing, but I have seen it from Aaron and his sons which scripture I am pointing to.

 

[The Archangel]

I don't know how else to put. Maybe we two are looking at things at different viewpoints. I am trying to find out what Christ fulfillment of all righteousness is and what I came up with. You are talking about a line of priesthood. I am looking for the fulfillment of all righteousness that I find in scripture. What scripture He is fulfilling by being baptized for this righteousness He already has. I don't remember Melchizedek having done a washing or baptizing, but I have seen it from Aaron and his sons which scripture I am pointing to.

You are suggesting that Jesus fulfilled the righteousness of the Aaronic (Levitical) priesthood. I think I understand that you are saying this.

What you are not understanding is that Jesus has no part of the Aaronic (Levitical) priesthood because He is a.) not from the tribe of Levi and b.) not needed to be purified.

Jesus is a priest--our High Priest. But, as the scripture clearly states, He is not a priest after the order of Aaron (the Levitical priesthood). Jesus is a priest, but only after the order of Melchizedek. Therefore, the trappings and ceremony of the Aaronic (or Levitical) priesthood do not and cannot apply to Christ. So, Jesus' "Fulfilling of all righteousness," what ever that means, cannot mean that He is fulfilling the ritual of the Aaronic priesthood.

Notice, I'm not offering an alternative view to yours. I'm simply pointing out why your view is not and cannot be right.

The Archangel

 

[psalms109:31]

You are suggesting that Jesus fulfilled the righteousness of the Aaronic (Levitical) priesthood. I think I understand that you are saying this.

What you are not understanding is that Jesus has no part of the Aaronic (Levitical) priesthood because He is a.) not from the tribe of Levi and b.) not needed to be purified.

Jesus is a priest--our High Priest. But, as the scripture clearly states, He is not a priest after the order of Aaron (the Levitical priesthood). Jesus is a priest, but only after the order of Melchizedek. Therefore, the trappings and ceremony of the Aaronic (or Levitical) priesthood do not and cannot apply to Christ. So, Jesus' "Fulfilling of all righteousness," what ever that means, cannot mean that He is fulfilling the ritual of the Aaronic priesthood.

Notice, I'm not offering an alternative view to yours. I'm simply pointing out why your view is not and cannot be right.

The Archangel

I am not talking about a priesthood in an order, I am talking about why Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness. I don't see that in Melchizedek. What I am finding out why was He baptized to fulfill all righteousness. To purify has nothing to do with the line, because Jesus was baptized. The question is why. What scripture is this comming from?

That is the scripture that I found

 

[Amy.G]

One of my commentaries says that Jesus was baptized as a picture of His death, burial and resurrection. To "fulfill all righteousness" means that Jesus' baptism was a sign of fulfilling God's righteous judgment against sin in the death of His Son in our place.

 

[The Archangel]

I am not talking about a priesthood in an order, I am talking about why Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness. I don't see that in Melchizedek. What I am finding out why was He baptized to fulfill all righteousness. To purify has nothing to do with the line, because Jesus was baptized. The question is why. What scripture is this comming from?

That is the scripture that I found

Again, it is nearly impossible for me to understand you--and that's probably a shortcoming on my part.

But, you did post scripture about the setting-apart of Aaron and his sons, did you not?

You were suggesting that this "baptism" of Aaron and his sons was similar to what happened to Jesus at His own baptism, were you not?

I am merely pointing out that the two things--Aaron's ordination and Jesus' baptism--cannot be related. Therefore, Jesus' baptism "to fulfill all righteousness" means something else.

The Archangel