So, I begin by stating to Luke that “if you’re interested in logic and defining free will” and then start laying out a definition of “Determinism” in order to identify an issue which would give reason why Luke’s definition of “Free will/ability/volition” must not conflict with his view of determinism in order to be *logical. To begin the argument I “attempt” to establish the definition of “Determinism” before going on to discuss his definition of “free will”.
No sir, you attempted a syllogism ( a pretty rough one at that but I appreciated the effort) which rightly proved some things but those things had NOTHING at all to do with volition.
Concerning Luke’s First Opposing “Argument”: Luke states that my premise which raises an issue of defining “Determinism” as a building block does not negate free will; but he doesn’t make any direct claim against the argument by directly identifying any elements from within the building blocks of the argument as a false claim. Instead immediately he resorts to
I don't have to prove that it doesn't negate free will. It doesn't even include free will at all. It did not even MENTION free will or volition. Your argument had nothing at all to do with volition until after you amde it you demanded that it did.
That would be like me saying, "Pigs have four legs so I must conclude from that that pigs can fly."
Your argument that proved that pigs have four legs or in actuality proved that determinism means that everything that comes to pass has been determined by God and MUST therefore come to pass HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH PIGS FLYING or volition not being possible.
*”Question-begging” arguments which includes a couple other fallacies within.
Nope.
Luke begins his “argument” with the premise [That syllogism does not negate free will.] then offers reasoning that it is not true by using a *”Groupthink fallacy” saying [All Christians believe…] then a *”Weaseler fallacy” saying, […God has determined some things tohappen…] finally, he attempts to present another Groupthink fallacy – [No one has a problem…].
Nope. But I am proud that you are at least learning these logical fallacy terms even if you do not yet know how to apply them properly. Learning the terms is a start.
It appears that Luke does not understand how to present an argument within *basic philosophical logical principles.
Deflection as any educated person who reads our arguments will be able to point out to you.
But to the uneducated person you might be achieving your goal here of trying to sound intelligent. But like I say, that is where it starts, so I am proud of you.
*A few basic philosophical logical principles:
{*Logic – The branch of philosophy concerned with whether the reasons presented for a claim, if those reasons were true, would justify accepting the claim.}
{*Fallacy – An argument in which the reasons advanced for a claim fail to warrant acceptance of that claim.}
{*Groupthink fallacy – A fallacy that occurs when someone lets identification with a group cloud reasoning and deliberation when arriving at a position on an issue.}
{*Weaseler – An expression used to protect a claim from criticism by weakening it}
Critical Thinking by Moore / Parker.
Excellent copying and pasting. I agree with this information. Good work. Now keep at it and you will learn how to apply it in an actual debate.
Luke is about to confirm that he “appreciates logic”, says he “see’s” my point, yet, does not confirm or deny any of my questions which begin by asking him to acknowledge or not a simple and clear definition of “Determinism”
Your definition of "determinism" had nothing to do with free will.
Present a definition of determinism in which anything at ALL about free will is even MENTIONED and maybe we can go from there.
and declares he will “demonstrate” that my “syllogism does not even deal with, much less negate free will.” He then begins with the below: (1)- [This is false, My (Ben's) premise begins and ends claiming ability/volition must logically be upheld along side of “his” definition of “Determinism”, IOW’s determinism must be logically shown how it is not mutually exclusive to “his” definition of “free will” to be a valid argument and for his definition of “free will” (which he says needs to be established) to be accepted.
Present a definition of determinism in which anything at ALL about free will is even MENTIONED and maybe we can go from there.
Before I can accept a Determinist’ view of free will that is compatible with “determinism” I must first have a firm definition of his view on “determinism” that is logical and that he is willing to hold on to throughout the discussion.
I confirmed that your rather rough syllogism of determinism was sound.
I confirm that determinism means that God has predetermined everything that is ever to come to pass; that nothing can come to pass unless it has been predetermined by God.
You claim that that is inconsistent with the existence of free will. Prove it.
Above, Luke maintains his “*weaseler” (some things) and basically states that I presuppose that determinism means what is determined MUST come to pass?
Nope. You are confused. Never said that.
Luke is using this to disprove my claim that free will cannot be negated by creaturely volition being pre-determined by another Being (God). So, it looks as if Luke is basically telling me I cannot assume determinism means something is determined therefore cannot claim this would logically negate volition.
Nope, again. You presuppose that something being determined negates the possibility of free will. I say that is silly and that you have not even SCRATCHED at an argument to prove it, heretofore.