ReformedBaptist
Well-Known Member
Since this is the hot topic of the century, I thought I would ask why those who have come to understand the doctrines of grace to be biblical doctrines, what was it that opened your eyes?
What got me thinking about these areas of doctrine was the controversy. I spent time reading both sides of the argument and frankly was frustated by it. I decided to stop listening to debates and arguments and turned to the Lord and asked His help.
I prayed that as I read through the Bible, if it seemed good to God to show me one way or the other, I asked that He would. My plan was to start in Genesis and read the BIble through again. If He didn't show me anything, then so be it. But if He did, I would accept the truth of His Word no matter what the outcome.
I didn't get past Exodus. I saw in God's dealings with Pharoah and the Apostle Paul's commentary on the same the absolute sovereignty of God.
The only other thing that I wrestled with was the extent of the atonement. What convinced me completely that the atonement was limited to believers only was John 17:9 "I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine."
I knew that Christ's sacrifice could not be separated from His intercession. John 17 also showed me that the ones He was praying for was the elect only:
"I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word." verse 6
There was no fighting this anymore. My 1 John and 2 Peter arguments could not stand. Here in the Gospel of John the Holy Spirit clearly showed that Christ does not intercede for those who are not given to the Son by the Father, but "for them which thous hast given me, for they are thine."
I still needed to reconcile what seemed to my mind to be a contradiction with some other verses.
I merely had to look at 2 Peter in context and the illusion disappeared immediately. Brethren, if 2 Peter is teaching anything at all, it is teaching that the longsuffering of our Lord is the salvation of His elect, for He is not willing for any of them to perish.
When 1 John 2:2 is understood to be exegetically sound with regard to Jews and Gentiles, then that illusion disappeared as well.
What got me thinking about these areas of doctrine was the controversy. I spent time reading both sides of the argument and frankly was frustated by it. I decided to stop listening to debates and arguments and turned to the Lord and asked His help.
I prayed that as I read through the Bible, if it seemed good to God to show me one way or the other, I asked that He would. My plan was to start in Genesis and read the BIble through again. If He didn't show me anything, then so be it. But if He did, I would accept the truth of His Word no matter what the outcome.
I didn't get past Exodus. I saw in God's dealings with Pharoah and the Apostle Paul's commentary on the same the absolute sovereignty of God.
The only other thing that I wrestled with was the extent of the atonement. What convinced me completely that the atonement was limited to believers only was John 17:9 "I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine."
I knew that Christ's sacrifice could not be separated from His intercession. John 17 also showed me that the ones He was praying for was the elect only:
"I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word." verse 6
There was no fighting this anymore. My 1 John and 2 Peter arguments could not stand. Here in the Gospel of John the Holy Spirit clearly showed that Christ does not intercede for those who are not given to the Son by the Father, but "for them which thous hast given me, for they are thine."
I still needed to reconcile what seemed to my mind to be a contradiction with some other verses.
I merely had to look at 2 Peter in context and the illusion disappeared immediately. Brethren, if 2 Peter is teaching anything at all, it is teaching that the longsuffering of our Lord is the salvation of His elect, for He is not willing for any of them to perish.
When 1 John 2:2 is understood to be exegetically sound with regard to Jews and Gentiles, then that illusion disappeared as well.