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Interesting question, but it's more important to me that.....................
HE IS RISEN!!!!!!
Yes, his resurrection is important, but why did he emphasize 3 days and 3 nights ?
The answer to Matthew 12:40 (three days and three nights) is to accept that Jesus was using a colloquialism, three days and three nights only referring to three days or part days rather than 72 literal hours.
Yes, his resurrection is important, but why did he emphasize 3 days and 3 nights ?
The answer to Matthew 12:40 (three days and three nights) is to accept that Jesus was using a colloquialism, three days and three nights only referring to three days or part days rather than 72 literal hours. In 1 Samuel 30, verse 12, the account of a starving servant is recorded as follows: “…For he had not eaten bread or drunk water for three days and three nights.” But in verse thirteen, his problem had started three days ago. This passage therefore suggests, and I accept that “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to days or parts of days and not to a literal 72 hours or a literal three daylight periods and three darkness periods because three days ago would only include two darkness periods. If you compare 2 Chronicles 10:5 (return to me in three days) with 2 Chronicles 10:12 (came to Rehoboam on the third day) you will see that three days and on the third day mean the same thing, indicating that both inclusive counting was used and parts of days were counted as days in the pre-scientific culture. Inclusive counting means that you count today as the first day when saying something happened three or any number of days ago or in the future. Therefore, “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to three days ago, and three days ago is the day before yesterday or literally only two nights ago. The point of Matthew 12:40 was not to create conflict with the many scriptures that say “on the third day” but only to draw a parallel with Jonah by using the terminology of Jonah 1:17.
Hi RevMWC, I demonstrated the phrase is a Jewish colloquialism by showing from 1 Samuel 30:12-13 that three days and three nights ago means three days ago. Then I showed, using 2 Chronicles 10:5 and 10:12 that three days and on the third day mean the same thing. This demonstrates inclusive counting (part of Friday = day 1, Saturday = day 2, and part of Sunday = day three.) So on the third day refers to Friday before sundown, to Sunday just before sun up, and on the third day means the same as three days (Chronicles 10:5; 10:12) and three days means the same as "three days and three nights" (1 Samuel 30:12-13.).
The answer to Matthew 12:40 (three days and three nights) is to accept that Jesus was using a colloquialism, three days and three nights only referring to three days or part days rather than 72 literal hours. In 1 Samuel 30, verse 12, the account of a starving servant is recorded as follows: “…For he had not eaten bread or drunk water for three days and three nights.” But in verse thirteen, his problem had started three days ago. This passage therefore suggests, and I accept that “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to days or parts of days and not to a literal 72 hours or a literal three daylight periods and three darkness periods because three days ago would only include two darkness periods. If you compare 2 Chronicles 10:5 (return to me in three days) with 2 Chronicles 10:12 (came to Rehoboam on the third day) you will see that three days and on the third day mean the same thing, indicating that both inclusive counting was used and parts of days were counted as days in the pre-scientific culture. Inclusive counting means that you count today as the first day when saying something happened three or any number of days ago or in the future. Therefore, “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to three days ago, and three days ago is the day before yesterday or literally only two nights ago. The point of Matthew 12:40 was not to create conflict with the many scriptures that say “on the third day” but only to draw a parallel with Jonah by using the terminology of Jonah 1:17.
Hi RevMWC, I demonstrated the phrase is a Jewish colloquialism by showing from 1 Samuel 30:12-13 that three days and three nights ago means three days ago. Then I showed, using 2 Chronicles 10:5 and 10:12 that three days and on the third day mean the same thing. This demonstrates inclusive counting (part of Friday = day 1, Saturday = day 2, and part of Sunday = day three.) So on the third day refers to Friday before sundown, to Sunday just before sun up, and on the third day means the same as three days (Chronicles 10:5; 10:12) and three days means the same as "three days and three nights" (1 Samuel 30:12-13.).
This view eliminates any need for confusion caused by taking three days and three nights as literal. It provides a sound scriptural basis for accepting the phase is a colloquialism.
Hi Freeatlast, I think you are referring to Mark 8:31 which says after three days, not after three days and three nights. If three days refers to part of Fri, Sat. and part of Sunday, then He arose after the first part of Sunday and therefore after three days, using inclusive counting and part day counting.
Making a reference to Jonah does not rule out using a coloquialism! Does the Bible say the reference is Jonah was or was not a colloquialism? No. But the figurative usage from 1 Samuel 30:12-13 was written before Jonah was written. So it could have been used in the same way.
But the point is that if Jonah and Jesus were using the colloquialsim, the illustration of Jonah still stands, and the rest of the verses that say "on the third day" as part of Friday, Saturday, and part of Sunday still is consistent with all scripture. Your view is not.