• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

The coupe de grace of deniers of original sin

Status
Not open for further replies.

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
So you are ok with abortion then... the fetus is just getting what it deserves for being a sinner? Unless you think the death of the sinful fetus is unjust.
How on earth would you ever deduce that?
Did I ever say or even infer such a thing.
Life starts at conception. That is clear in Psalm 51:5, as well as the many verses relating to the birth of Christ. If you believe in your own rhetorical question you would have had no problem aborting Christ!!
And that is what you infer that I believe??
What garbage is this that you espouse, and for what reason?
 
No, the soul of the baby is spiritual dead when born into this world! They then grow up and sin because they are sinners by nature and what they are judged for is their own individual sins on the day of judgement because Christ has paid for the sin of the world so that no man goes to hell purely because of representative sin. Christ paying for the sin of the world proves the sin is real and exists in every human from birth. The fact that those capable of individual willful sin only pay "according to their works" proves that Christ paid for the sin of the world - original sin.

What sin did the new born babe commit causing it to be born dead into the world. Sin brings forth death, so what sin did that new born babe commit?
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
So you are ok with abortion then... the fetus is just getting what it deserves for being a sinner? Unless you think the death of the sinful fetus is unjust.

We lost two children shortly after birth. Our children which survived birth and early childhood went through lots of troubles (sickness, accidental injuries, mistreatment by sibblines, etc.).

Do you bellieve that God was unjust in permitting such things to happen to little helpless infants? Didn't God give them life in conception and did not he knowlingly permit them to experience all the problems of being born and living as helpless infants?

Tell us, who is at fault for allowing such things to happen to infants? Is it the parents? Is it God? Who is to blame?

If your answer is "Adam" then tell us how could God be just by allowing infants to suffer for Adam's sin since Ezek. 18;20 says that God does not hold the sin of the fathers upon the children!! So does not that make your position blame God if we use the same rationale you have used?
 

Gup20

Active Member
"BY one man's offence MANY WERE MADE SINNERS"
"BY one man's offence MANY BE DEAD"
"For IN Adam all die"

However, your interpretation of the origin of sin in infants makes these scriptures read thus:

"by MANY OFFENCES many were made sinners"
"by MANY OFFENCES many be dead"

Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

It does not say "death passed upon all men for that one sinned" it says "all sinned". The sin is individual, the death is by inheritance. It CLEARLY says death is passed, not sin is passed.

Rom 5:15 But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many

Here it says through the offense of one many be dead, not many be sinners.

Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.

By one man's offense DEATH REIGNED. It doesn't say sin reigned.

The scripture makes a distinction, however. It says there is a difference:

Rom 5:16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift: for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift [is] of many offences unto justification.

So it says "many offenses unto justification." If we get our sin nature from Adam, then Christ would only need to atone for one offense to eliminate the sin nature. Furthermore, once Christ had atoned for that one sin, no one would continue to be born with a sin nature because that one sin would have been forgiven.

Your faulty logic has destroyed the entire basis for your faulty belief system.
 
We lost two children shortly after birth. Our children which survived birth and early childhood went through lots of troubles (sickness, accidental injuries, mistreatment by sibblines, etc.).

Do you bellieve that God was unjust in permitting such things to happen to little helpless infants? Didn't God give them life in conception and did not he knowlingly permit them to experience all the problems of being born and living as helpless infants?

Tell us, who is at fault for allowing such things to happen to infants? Is it the parents? Is it God? Who is to blame?

If your answer is "Adam" then tell us how could God be just by allowing infants to suffer for Adam's sin since Ezek. 18;20 says that God does not hold the sin of the fathers upon the children!! So does not that make your position blame God if we use the same rationale you have used?

I am sorry for you and your wife's losses concerning your children. However, infants die the same as the elderly because their physical bodies are created "in Adam". This death is unexcapable. The soul dies when it willingly and knowingly sins, and God then places them under condemnation, and need to be reconciled back to Him.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What sin did the new born babe commit causing it to be born dead into the world. Sin brings forth death, so what sin did that new born babe commit?

The whole human nature was "IN Adam" when Adam sinned and that one sin is imputed to all mankind because Adam acted as the representative of all mankind or in biblical language:

"BY one man's offence MANY be dead...MANY were made sinners"

However, the theology of many on this forum would make these two texts read:

"by MANY MEN'S OFFENCES many be dead...many were made sinners"


The former attributes the sin of one to many and thus the just consequences upon many. The latter attributes the just consequences to many due to their own sins!.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
I am sorry for you and your wife's losses concerning your children. However, infants die the same as the elderly because their physical bodies are created "in Adam". This death is unexcapable. The soul dies when it willingly and knowingly sins, and God then places them under condemnation, and need to be reconciled back to Him.
The soul is "life." We see from Genesis one that animals have "life" or souls, and yet do not go to heaven or hell. Their life is extinguished. It is the spirit of man that lives onward. The spirit of man has been tainted by sin; now under the curse, as is all of creation. That is an inescapable fact. Nothing is innocent. "The whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain until now waiting for the adoption..."
As David threw himself at the mercy of God so do we. God shall do right. Everything does not have to fit into a small theological box made by man.
 
The whole human nature was "IN Adam" when Adam sinned and that one sin is imputed to all mankind because Adam acted as the representative of all mankind or in biblical language:

"BY one man's offence MANY be dead...MANY were made sinners"

However, the theology of many on this forum would make these two texts read:

"by MANY MEN'S OFFENCES many be dead...many were made sinners"


The former attributes the sin of one to many and thus the just consequences upon many. The latter attributes the just consequences to many due to their own sins!.


Well, then I need to erase Ezekiel 18:4,20 then? The soul that sinneth, it SHALL die, needs to be reworded, "The soul that sinneth, shall remain dead"? Or "shall die even more"?
 
The soul is "life." We see from Genesis one that animals have "life" or souls, and yet do not go to heaven or hell. Their life is extinguished. It is the spirit of man that lives onward. The spirit of man has been tainted by sin; now under the curse, as is all of creation. That is an inescapable fact. Nothing is innocent. "The whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain until now waiting for the adoption..."
As David threw himself at the mercy of God so do we. God shall do right. Everything does not have to fit into a small theological box made by man.


I think our confusion(speaking past each other?) is that you have man being three parts, and I see man as two parts, body and soul. The soul comes from God, and it isn't tainted by sin until it knowingly, and willingly, sins.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

It does not say "death passed upon all men for that one sinned" it says "all sinned".

You ignore the Aorist tense point completed action but interpret it as though it were a FUTURE tense - this is your grammatical ERROR!

All men sinned at a given complete point action! That completed point action is repeatedly stated as follows:

"By ONE MAN"S OFFENCE many be dead" - v. 15


Again, the Aorist tense complete point action in verse 15 but restricting that point action with "one man's offence"! The whole human nature became "dead" at the precise point Adam sinned because all mankind, the whole of human nature existed "IN Adam" because only "IN Adam all men die"! If they were not "IN Adam" they would not eventually suffer physical death! They were "IN Adam" physically as one undivided human nature and when Adam died spiritual at the point of sin so did the rest of humanity as it is that human nature they partake of through birth.


The sin is individual, the death is by inheritance. It CLEARLY says death is passed, not sin is passed.

No, verse 15 defines that death as IMMEDIATE in connection with "one man's offence" again using the Aorist tense completed point action.

Many DIED when Adam sinned is the grammatical conclusion! By ONE MAN sin entered the world and death by sin! Death entered IMMEDIATELY when the "sin entered the world"!! Hence, "by one man's offence MANY BE DEAD"



Rom 5:15 But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many

Here it says through the offense of one many be dead, not many be sinners.

"by one man's offence many were MADE SINNERS" - v. 19

Adam's offense (sin) brought passed death unto many when Adam sinned because all mankind was "IN Adam" because DEATH is only found "IN Adam" - "for ALL IN ADAM die".

Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.

By one man's offense DEATH REIGNED. It doesn't say sin reigned.

"By one man sin enterd and death BY SIN" - that is how death reigns in many "by one man's offence"!

The scripture makes a distinction, however. It says there is a difference:

Rom 5:16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift: for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift [is] of many offences unto justification.

So it says "many offenses unto justification." If we get our sin nature from Adam, then Christ would only need to atone for one offense to eliminate the sin nature.

We get our sin nature from Adam which is the root of our SINS plural! In regard to infants He took away the singular "sin" of the world and therefore dying infants do not go to hell but are saved exactly as they were condemned under "sin" singular.

However, for infants who do not die but go on to commit "sins" or "offences" plural and so "many offences unto justification."

Furthermore, once Christ had atoned for that one sin, no one would continue to be born with a sin nature because that one sin would have been forgiven.

You are confusing the condition through birth with forgiveness in final judgment! The atonement did not remove the condition at birth but only the condemnation at final judgement.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
I think our confusion(speaking past each other?) is that you have man being three parts, and I see man as two parts, body and soul. The soul comes from God, and it isn't tainted by sin until it knowingly, and willingly, sins.
IMO, that is mere speculation. Can you provide Scripture for that position.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I think our confusion(speaking past each other?) is that you have man being three parts, and I see man as two parts, body and soul. The soul comes from God, and it isn't tainted by sin until it knowingly, and willingly, sins.

No, you simply need to stop forcing Ezek 18:20 into the Genesis 2-3 context!

No "father" past Adam represented "MANY" by "one man's offence" but that is precisely how you are applying Ezek. 18:20! You are applying Ezek. 18:20 as though every "father" in history stands in the reprsentative position of Adam in regard to humanity! Only one other Person in history is given that place and it is not anyone other than Jesus Christ as "the second Adam".

You are attempting by your application of Ezek. 18:20 to make every single father in history like either the "first Adam" or the "Second Adam"!

Only the "first" or "second" Adam represented MANY by "one offence" or by "the obedience of one" NO BODY ELSE including the "father" in Ezek 18:20 can be put in that position!
 
IMO, that is mere speculation. Can you provide Scripture for that position.


Well, I see the words soul/spirit being used interchangeably. I know that there is a verse that states soul and spirit, but think Spirit is used in describing the Holy Spirit. In Ecc. 12:7 it states, "The spirit goes back to God who gave it." The prodical son came back, and His Father said he is alive again. To be redeemed, means to be bought back. How can you buy back something that wasn't yours to begin with? Restored. How can a soul born dead in sin be restored? The prefix "re" means again. Apostle Paul stated in Romans seven he was alive with the Law once, but the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. Then he went on to say that the Law deceived him, and slew him. How can you slay a "dead thing". Something can not be "deader" than dead. Whether we're dead one second, or one million years, we are still the same amount dead.
 
No, you simply need to stop forcing Ezek 18:20 into the Genesis 2-3 context!

No "father" past Adam represented "MANY" by "one man's offence" but that is precisely how you are applying Ezek. 18:20! You are applying Ezek. 18:20 as though every "father" in history stands in the reprsentative position of Adam in regard to humanity! Only one other Person in history is given that place and it is not anyone other than Jesus Christ as "the second Adam".

You are attempting by your application of Ezek. 18:20 to make every single father in history like either the "first Adam" or the "Second Adam"!

Only the "first" or "second" Adam represented MANY by "one offence" or by "the obedience of one" NO BODY ELSE including the "father" in Ezek 18:20 can be put in that position!

Well, it does say that the son shall not bear the sin inquities of the father, neither the father for the son. It also states that YOUR iniquities have seperated you from God. If we are seperated from God(soul) at birth, then what sin of the soul has that soul committed to bring forth this seperation?
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, it does say that the son shall not bear the sin inquities of the father, neither the father for the son. It also states that YOUR iniquities have seperated you from God. If we are seperated from God(soul) at birth, then what sin of the soul has that soul committed to bring forth this seperation?

Do you beleive that our position is that once the sin/death nature is passed down to Adam's posterity that it is not manifested in sins by all individuals with such a sin nature????? Do you think we must believe one or the other but not both?????

Can you show that Ezekiel 18;20 and the "father" stands in the position of Adam or Christ in regard to "many"? If not, then why insist it does?

Can we show that Ezekiel 18:20 and the "children" of that father do not suffer for the individual sins of their father but for their own sins due to their own sin nature they received from Adam?

"By ONE man's offence MANY be dead....many were made sinners"
 
Do you beleive that our position is that once the sin/death nature is passed down to Adam's posterity that it is not manifested in sins by all individuals with such a sin nature????? Do you think we must believe one or the other but not both?????

Well, I believe that your position is blatantly and patently false(which you do mine as well :) ).

Can you show that Ezekiel 18;20 and the "father" stands in the position of Adam or Christ in regard to "many"? If not, then why insist it does?

The father in that verse is their natural father. It is stating that we will bear the burden of our sins, and not those of another. It is OUR sins, not the sins of Adam and Eve, Moses and Aaron, Elisha and Elijha(sp?), that seperates us from God.

Can we show that Ezekiel 18:20 and the "children" of that father do not suffer for the individual sins of their father but for their own sins due to their own sin nature they received from Adam?

Well again, it is OUR sins that have seperated us from God. How can something be "re"stored, "re"deemed, without there first being ownership? I can't buy back the Taj Mahal, because I never own it to begin with.


"By ONE man's offence MANY be dead....many were made sinners"


I agree with this verse, just not the way you are purporting it.
 

savedbymercy

New Member
conv

God gives the new born babe a sin cursed soul?


Well that all depends. If they are elect, though they are born sinners, they are not cursed, because Christ became a curse for them. No one Christ died for has their sin imputed to their Charge.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, I believe that your position is blatantly and patently false(which you do mine as well :) ).

You have to pervert the Scriptures, jerk texts out of context (Ezek 18) and deny the obvious - I don't!

We have the plain statements of Scripture that literaly and clearly deny that infants are born pure and without sin but are born unclean and defiled by sin from the womb (Job. 14:4-5; 15:14).

We have plain and literal statements supported immediately by metaphorical expressions that teach the same thing (Psa. 53:4; 58:5)

We have it stated in plain doctrinal precepts (Rom. 5:12,15,18) where the grammar demands both death/sin in many occurred at the completed point when Adam sinned.

The father in that verse is their natural father. It is stating that we will bear the burden of our sins, and not those of another. It is OUR sins, not the sins of Adam and Eve, Moses and Aaron, Elisha and Elijha(sp?), that seperates us from God.

It is the father of his own immediate children not Adam and the children of Adam. It is the father who has not been placed in a position to represent ALL who are "IN Adam" (I Cor. 15:22) but the first and Second Adam have been placed in that position in regard to all that are in each respectively - the first and second Adam (1 Cor. 15:44-47). In other words, you are simply jerking a verse out of context and using it any way you please in direct contradiction to scriptures that are in context! You have no right to take Ezekiel 18:20 and apply it to Adam when in context it has no such application and you have no right to take Romans 5:12-19 and apply it to Ezek 18:20 when there is no such contextual application! But that is the kind of policitcs and eisgesis you play with! It is called DECEPTION, distortion but not exegetical honesty or integrity with God's Word!
 

Gup20

Active Member
Always make something personal when you cannot deal with Biblical substance! I could just as easily say you sound as a father who denies your children have faults?

You didn't back up your claims with scripture, but your proof was anecdotal evidence. You frequently use the refrain of "anyone with a child knows..." or "if you ever had children..." Had you used scripture, I could have easily shown you how you wrongly interpreted it... but you didn't use scripture as your evidence, you used your own failures as a parent to demonstrate your point. Since your point is wrong, the only way I can demonstrate that to you is by showing you where you went wrong.

No to all the above! Sin entered Adam from the outside but when it did it took up the mastery on the inside and it is this kind of human nature he passed down to his posterity with indwelling sin!

Yet, you cannot show us a scriptural basis for sin being passed. Romans 5 clearly says death, not sin, is passed ... and Ezekial 18 makes it clear that according to the law, one is not judged for the sin of an ancestor or child, but only for their own sin. So just where do you get the idea that sin is passed on in heredity?

Opened to what is the correct question! He knew he sinned when he determined to willfully eat the fruit but the action brought the intent to completion. What his eyes were opened to was the KNOWLEDGE of sin by EXPERIENCE of conscience that condemned what he did!

"Opened to what" is irrelevant. Sin is sin. The law is not concerned with thoughts, beliefs, but only with actions or behavior. Adam was not a sinner until he broke the law by action. Otherwise, his eyes would have been opened as soon as he lusted. But his eyes were not opened until he had sinned.

It is grace that concerns itself with faith or beliefs.

This was not Adam but Eve and the nature of the sin was not the same (1 Tim. 2:12). Adam's desire that led to his sin was not deception based upon the physical attributes of the fruit or Satan's deceptive description of its potential spiritual attributes.

:rolleyes: Adam desiring potential spiritual gain... no way that could be considered lust, I guess. Sometimes I wonder if you think before you type.

Never said it did come from God! That is your pure imagination at work! Always from the beginning of this discussion have used this text and denied it came from God. Finally, you wake up! Good!

Of course one can't get around that and be a good Calvinist. So if sin didn't come from God, then God must not be COMPLETELY sovereign then, right? I mean someone else besides God must have created sin, right?

Not in a prefallen Adam! But we are not products of a Pre-fallen Adam are we because "by one man's offence many were made......" As Jesus said it is the heart that is the source of all sin and such sin is "bound up IN THE HEART of a child" from birth!

Rom 5:16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift: for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift [is] of many offences unto justification.

Post-fallen man sin because they are sinners by nature and in infants it is clearly seen by omission of the image of God and by coming short of the glory of God in all they do as they grow more capable of self-expression.

"Clearly seen" by the eyes of a sinner like you, but unsupported by scripture yet again.

You should learn the difference between sin as a willful act and sin as a wrong intent behind all actions

This is true as it pertains to grace and faith - those are concerned with your beliefs. But can you show me where this is in The Law? And concerning Adam... perhaps you can show me from the following passage where it says that Adam was to maintain the right intentions:

Gen 2:16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:
17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.​

The only "law" in existence was to not eat of the tree. God didn't tell Adam He was going to be judging his thoughts and motives.

This is precisely why Jesus says sin originates from the heart (Mt. 15) not the actions.

Jesus says that because all men are sinners and the only way to save them is by grace - it is grace and faith that concern themselves with beliefs and intents.

Job 15:14 What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?

You have to be careful when reading Job because it is poetry written as a play. There are "wrong" statements in Job made by Job's associates, for example:

Job 15:1 Then answered Eliphaz the Temanite, and said,

Job 42:7 And it was [so], that after the LORD had spoken these words unto Job, the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, My wrath is kindled against thee, and against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of me [the thing that is] right, as my servant Job [hath].

How do we know Eliphaz was wrong? God says he was wrong. Furthermore:

Gal 4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

This is why David said,

Psa. 58:2 Yea, in heart ye work wickedness; ye weigh the violence of your hands in the earth.
3 The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies.

It says "from" the womb... not in the womb. Meaning they are out of the womb. It is reiterated by "as soon as they are born." Do you think a newborn can "speak lies" or do you think this is poetic language?

Perhaps the intended meaning of this poetic text was that they were all together sinful their whole lives?

What you fail to understand is sin separates and Adam died spiritually at the precise point he sinned ...
Do you see that "DEAD" and SINNERS" are equally what is passed down becuase they are inseparable.

Rom 8:10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Clearly, they are separable. In fact, the scriptures say that death reigned over people even when no sin was imputed to them:

Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

This is critical. This is how Jesus could die having no sin. If the sons of Adam inherit sin, then Jesus would have inherited sin. But sin is not passed, death is passed. If Jesus wasn't a son of Adam (a son of man) then he wasn't qualified to be our savior.

No father on earth but ONE acted in behalf of others! So this use of Ezekiel 18 is completely out of context and has no applicaton whatsoever.

"by ONE MAN's offence MANY WERE MADE SINNERS" is a repudiation of your misapplication of Ezek. 18:20! You cannot place "the father" in Ezek. 18:20 as the "one man" in Romans 5:15,19 and so why are you trying? You are simply pitting scripture against scripture by jerking Ezek 18:20 out of context!

The whole context of Romans 5 is against your interpretation of verse 19. Ezekiel 18 demonstrates that the law does not hold a person accountable for the unrighteousness of an ancestor. When a person is judged, they are judged for their own sin. So when is a person judged?

Hbr 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:

So we are judged AFTER we die. This means when we die, it is not a judgement on us. Our death is an inheritance from Adam, not an individual judgement.

You see - death and sin ARE separable. They are not the same thing. Sin is an action, and death is a consequence for that action. Sin is an action, death is a result of that action. The death we inherit is a RESULT of Adam's sin, but it is not an individual judgement. It is a global judgement represented in the Curse in Genesis 3:19.

You falsely believe that the moment Adam sinned, he died spiritually. But this demonstrably false.

Adam didn't die spiritually or physically until he was judged by God.

Physical Death
Gen 3:19 In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou [art], and unto dust shalt thou return.

Spiritual Death
Gen 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.

Rev 2:7 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.

Rev 22:14 Blessed [are] they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top