Are you saying that the past tense "saved" does not refer to the initial regeneration/conversion/justification aspect of salvation? If not, then how do you distinguish the past tense "saved" from the present tense "save" and future tense "shall be saved" from one another in regard to the various aspects of salvation?
I was explaining to you to use only the word justified when the scriptures say justified, and do not change the word to 'saved.'
Which is it? First you say the jews that did not believe in Jesus were cut off, then, you say the cutting off proves they were saved?
If they did not believe in Jesus then they could not have been saved according to Christ's own words in John 14:6 and Peter's words in Acts 4:12. Jesus said John 14:6 before he went to the cross and Peter said Acts 4:12 after the cross and both deny there is any salvation without coming through Christ! So how could they be saved without believing in Jesus in the first place (Acts 10:43)??
The Jews that were cut off, they were cut off because when Jesus came to earth, those Jews did not believe in Jesus. That is why God cut them off...and then believing Gentiles were grafted in.
Are you saying that Peter lied when he said ALL the prophets preached faith in Christ for remission of sins prior to the cross then (Acts 10:43)????
Why do you think some Jews were cut off? They were cut off for UNBELIEF. Why do you not grasp the truth? Branches are people, these branches were cut off for unbelief, and these branches were only Jews, Jews who had the law. We are now God's people THROUGH FAITH IN JESUS CHRIST. Before, the Jews were called God's people through the law.
Are you saying the writer of hebrews lied when he said the same gospel was preached to those under Moses as well as unto us but some did not believe in the gospel preached to them? (Heb. 4:2; Acts 26:22-23)
How do you possibly ever get that Hebrews 4:2 and Acts 26:22-23 disproves what I am saying?
How do you harmonize your idea they were saved without faith in Christ with the many scriptures that teach the same gospel was preaced prior to the coming of Christ as was preached after the coming of Christ?
Your argument is null. First, Jesus did not come to earth, preach the good news, and die until he came to earth. They longed to see his day. We do not come to be called "God's people" by the law anymore; we come to be "God's people" through Jesus. Why do you not want to admit that? God's people were the Jews; all of them were called God's people, even the ones who did not have faith. That is what they were called, "God's people."
Matthew 13:17 For I tell you the truth, many prophets and righteous men longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it.
They did not follow the law to be saved or to be justified as the Law cannot convey eternal life (Gal. 3:21) neither can it justify anyone. They were called the people of God because God elected/chose that NATION from among all other nations to reveal Himself to and give the Law. Romans 9 denies that just being a Jew makes one a child of God.
That is why God cut off branches.
That is because I never said that in the first place. What I said, was that Israel professed God and professed to be God's chosen nation among other nations but that does not mean every single Jew was actually a child of God by faith in Christ (Acts 10:43; Heb. 4:2).
You are wrong. God did NOT cut off BELIEVING JEWS. Jews were called "God's people." They were cut off for unbelief.