He was, for the three hours of darkness, deserted by the Father (I don't see how you can interpret Psalm 22:1-18 any other way)
I interpret Psalm 22 in it's entirety, the primary truth being this is Messianic, and David...was a bit of a sniveler of compromised faith when He wrote it...
Sound irreverent? Perhaps, but the fact is that David, when not in the throes of the consequences of sin (and it matters little if we ascribe his sin, the sin of others, or sin as a general factor in the generation of torment, trial, and tragedy)...
...understood that God would never forsake Him:
Turn the page, and we read...
Psalm 23:4
King James Version (KJV)
4 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death, I will fear no evil: for thou art with me; thy rod and thy staff they comfort me.
Two entirely perspectives, right? Either the Lord is with him, though he walk through the valley of the Shadow of death, or...He has forsaken David.
So we ask the question...was David forsaken at that time? Is that the case, or, is this simply a perspective of David in a time of great trial.
Secondly, we look at the Messianic nature of David's writing, which can equally said to have application to Christ and David and solely to Christ.
When we look at David's statement as applied to David, we look on from a perspective of having the...rest of the story.
Those looking on Christ and hearing these words, not only did they not have the rest of the story, but, they miss it completely...
Matthew 27:46-48
King James Version (KJV)
46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
47 Some of them that stood there, when they heard that, said, This man calleth for Elias.
We, though, do not stop at David's crying out "Why hast thou forsaken me," but, we continue on in the Psalm and see, in full revealed understanding in retrospect, that no, David was not forsaken, and yes, everything in the Psalm has to be considered.
While the trauma of both David and the Lord are great, I think it an error to take a view that the Father was separated from the Son at this time. Rather, the Lord is making a pointed correlation to the Psalm.
If we say Father and Son were separated, I think we are forced to conclude that Christ ceased being God at that time, and this is an impossibility. At no time did God cease being God. This suggests that in that time Christ was but a man, which view we usually reject, do we not?
There is no Hell associated with the Atonement.
It was finished upon the Cross, and it was accomplished by His death.
Communion is a reference to His death, that is the means by which He saves us. While the sufferings He endured are not neglected nor dismissed, had He been beaten yet not died, then sin would not have been atoned for. They did not beat the sacrifices of the Law, they put them to death. Those animals died in the stead of the sinner (the comer thereunto), that was the provision of the Law (and even prior to the Law, i.e., Abel, Noah, Abraham, Job).
So, in my view, think we have to maintain that pattern/figure in regards to Christ. He did not bleed so we could be forgiven our sins, He did not suffer flogging so we could receive remission, He did not carry a Cross that we might be redeemed.
He died in our stead. The death was necessary.
God bless.