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Featured The Meaning of 'World' in John 3:16

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Martin Marprelate, Oct 30, 2016.

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  1. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    An article by A.W. Pink. Apologies to those who already know it, but it appears that many do not.

    Many people suppose they already know the simple meaning of John 3:16, and therefore they conclude that no diligent study is required of them to discover the precise teaching of this verse. Needless to say, such an attitude shuts out any further light which they otherwise might obtain on the passage. Yet, if anyone will take a Concordance and read carefully the various passages in which the term "world" (as a translation of "kosmos") occurs, he will quickly perceive that to ascertain the precise meaning of, the word "world" in any given passage is not nearly so easy as is popularly supposed. The word "kosmos," and its English equivalent "world," is not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Very far from it. It is used in quite a number of different ways. Below we will refer to a few passages where this term occurs, suggesting a tentative definition in each case:

    "Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole [ie. the Cosmos]: Acts 17:24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth."

    "Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Ephesians 1:4, etc., etc.- "When Jesus knew that his hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end." "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world." This expression signifies, before the earth was founded. Compare Job 38:4 etc.

    "Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31 etc. "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out" Compare Matthew 4:8 and 1 John 5:19, R. V.

    "Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Romans 3:19, etc.�"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God."

    "Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Romans 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view.

    "Kosmos" is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews: Romans 11:12 etc. "Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel's) fulness." Note how the first clause in italics is defined by the latter clause placed in italics. Here, again, "the world" cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel!

    "Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12:47; 1 Corinthians 4:9; 2 Corinthians 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place.

    Thus it will be seen that "kosmos" has at least seven clearly defined different meanings in the New Testament. It may be asked, Has then God used a word thus to confuse and confound those who read the Scriptures? We answer, No! nor has He written His Word for lazy people who are too dilatory, or too busy with the things of this world, or, like Martha, so much occupied with "serving," they have no time and no heart to "search" and "study" Holy Writ! Should it be asked further, But how is a searcher of the Scriptures to know which of the above meanings the term "world" has in any given passage? The answer is: This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayer fully consulting other parallel passages to the one being studied. The principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the Gift of God. The first clause tells us what moved God to "give" His only begotten Son, and that was His great "love;" the second clause informs us for whom God "gave" His Son, and that is for, "whosoever (or, better, 'every one') believeth;" while the last clause makes known why God "gave" His Son (His purpose), and that is, that everyone that believeth "should not perish but have everlasting life." That "the world" in John 3:16 refers to the world of believers (God's elect), in contradistinction from "the world of the ungodly" (2 Pet. 2:5), is established, unequivocally established, by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God's "love." "God commendeth His love toward US", the saints, Romans 5:8. "Whom the Lord loveth He chasteneth"-every son, Hebrews 12:6. "We love Him, because He first loved US" - believers, 1 John 4:19. The wicked God "pities" (see Matt. 18:33). Unto the unthankful and evil God is "kind" (see Luke 6:35). The vessels of wrath He endures "with much long-suffering" (see Rom. 9:22). But "His own" God "loves"!
     
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  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    As you pointed out here, we must use the correct meaning based upon the contex of the passage, along with what the entire council of the Bible states on the issue...

    And think the best conclusion would be that this cannot be used to support that Unlimited Atonement fits best here!
     
  3. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    “The Scriptures are to be taken in the sense attached to them in the age and by the people to whom they were addressed.” Charles Hodge

    24 But he answered and said, I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15

    20 Jesus answered him, I have spoken openly to the world; I ever taught in synagogues, and in the temple, where all the Jews come together; and in secret spake I nothing. Jn 18
     
    #3 kyredneck, Oct 31, 2016
    Last edited: Oct 31, 2016
  4. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Excellent! Thanks Ky, for giving another example. Kosmos in John 18:20 means 'the Jews.'
     
  5. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    Lol, what makes you think 'the world' of 3:16 is not the same as 18:20?
     
  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    You did (sorta) by juxtapositioning Matthew 15:24 with John 18:20 thereby giving the impression that "world" in terms of the evangelism of Jesus and the apostles meant Israel only ever.

    which would then change the following passage for the apostle and disciples to stay in Israel.

    Mark 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

    Then we have a problem with :

    Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

    ya, I know it doesn't say "world" but perhaps it defines it for John 3:16.

    HankD
     
  7. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Good old Pink. Once again trying to make scripture say something it doesn't. So Pink starts with his presupposition (i.e. a poor definition of election) and then imposes that on this passage. He then uses this passage in which he has imposed his presupposition to make a poor attempt to prove his presupposition.

    John 3:16 does not say for the elect. It says that Jesus died so that those (corporate) who believe on Him may have eternal life. That verse says Jesus died to give eternal life to those who believe. The assigning of this eternal life only comes and is only understood in this passage as coming after believing. John 1:12 places eternal life after believing. If John wanted to speak of the elect in the way Pink imposes on this passage he could have very well done so. His intention would have been far more clear.

    The case Pink has not made about the use of the word "world" is that it is ever used to describe the "elect". That case just cannot be made.

    And of course the arrogance of Calvinists shows up in this piece by Pink when he accuses anyone who does not believe as he does as being lazy.

    The op is sophomoric at best.
     
  8. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    The context will always determine the meaning.
     
  9. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Your post just shows that Pink was correct. There is no effort to deal with what he actually writes.
    But my purpose in quoting the extract was simply to show that kosmos does not always mean 'all the people in the world' which is what many Arminians tend to claim.
     
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  10. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Ok well you can disagree with me but this statement is just false. This is a prime example of why reasonable discussions cannot be had with many Cals.
     
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  11. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    .... 1 Timothy 4:10 for for this we both labour and are reproached, because we hope on the living God, who is Saviour of all men -- especially of those believing.

    I don't need to do linguistic acrobats to ascertain the meaning of this passage. Do I?
     
  12. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    I don't quite trust the judgment of Pink after I read some of his "gleanings from Paul." In the intro he says 2 absurd things...

    1. There are no prayers in the book of Acts by the apostles

    2. There are no prayers towards the "world."

    I am throwing the bath water and baby out on this one.
     
  13. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    No acrobatics needed. He died for all in a limited way (the refreshing rains fall on the just and on the unjust) but in a special way for believers (the atonement). Couldn't be clearer. :)
     
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  14. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    -_-
     
  15. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    In what way are all men saved?
    Does Jesus save everybody?
    Does Jesus save all who are saved?
    Does Jesus save all kinds of men, jew ,gentile rich, poor?
    If any man gets saved, can they be saved by any other person?
    Can any man be saved and not believe?
    Is there any other Saviour offered to all men?
     
  16. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    RM misses every key point that would lead to a correct understanding and follows with the usual arrogant remark at the end:Cautious:Cautious:Cautious
     
  17. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    I'm not sure what that means. Do you agree or disagree?
     
  18. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    I don't agree with your post.

    Simply put, Christ's payment for sin is available to all, but only credited to those who believe.
     
  19. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    And for a calvie, they *don't want* world to mean the whole world in John 3:16. They must fit (cram) every passage into their framework of tulip.
     
  20. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Yes it could.
    :)
    HankD
     
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