Featured The Biblical Doctrine of Penal Substitution

Ask yourself "why" would God require ceremonial cleansing for this? You are looking only at the external rather than the truth found in the symbolism inherent in this action. The symbolism is in the act not the intent. The act symbolizes identification with death which is spiritual separation from God which ultimately finds its full meaning in Gehenna - or total and eternal separation from God due to sin.

There is the "sin" of ignorance wherein "intent" is not the issue but the act of VIOLATING GOD'S LAW!

So to answer your question. the symbolism is an act of sin that results in separation - eternal separation regardless of intent. Remember, sin is coming short of the glory of God or sins of omission wherein "intent" is not the issue but violating the law's standard is the issue.

 

LOL tell me what isn't denied by someone???? That is no argument!

You are so blinded by your zeal for your position you can't see the obvious. You admit this is a TYPE so deal with it as a type. What is the condemnation for sin by the Law? Answer - Death, and death in its fullest measured sense. Who sinned? The human sinner or the animal? Who suffers the death because of that sin, the human or the animal? How would death in its fullest sense be expressed in a TYPE? Physical death of the animal would partially depict the extent of death in type. However, death in association with "FIRE' would also be an appropriate type of death in its final conclusion (Gehenna) and in association with the brazen altar. I do not know of any typologists that deny the use of brass in the tabernacle/temple context does not typify the judgment of God.

You are demanding a LITERAL statement from a TYPE and then you won't even recognize the standard meanings associated with these types.

 

The brazen altar is commonly acknowledged by most typologists to be a type of the JUDGEMENT of God. The "fire" is a type of Gehenna as even Christ used "fire" as a description of Gehenna and punishment.

Brass is used in scripture to typify God's judgement. In the following verse heaven is described as "brass" as the Lord from heaven is issuing forth punishments for sin rather heaven being represented as the source of blessings.

Deut 28:22-23
22 The LORD shall smite thee with a consumption, and with a fever, and with
an inflammation, and with an extreme burning, and with the sword, and with
blasting, and with mildew; and they shall pursue thee until thou perish.
23 And thy heaven that is over thy head shall be brass, and the earth that
is under thee shall be iron.

In revelation 1 Christ's feet are characterized as polished "brass" in his role of Judge of the whole world in Revelation 6-19.

The combination of "fire" and "brass" together is obvious types of God's wrath taken out on the animal in the place of the sinner as it is the animal that is suffering death "for sin" instead of the sinner. This typifies Christ on the cross due to sinners and their sins and Isaiah characterizes his sufferings on the cross in terms of punishment for our sins. He was AFFLICTED due to sinners and their sins.

 

You still don't understand the nature of God's law. It makes no difference what may be the application of the Law of God. The law is MORAL by its nature due to the fact it originates from God's moral faculty of the heart. All of God's laws are determined thoughts that issue from his heart and when spoken or written they become the revealed "will" of God. Violation of any of those laws is rebellion against HIS PERSON who is the source of law and that is what makes all violations MORAL issues.

You still have not been able to respond to the fact that both the written law/commandments of God can be summarized into two commandments and those two can be summarized in one word "LOVE" which is a MORAL VALUE that comprehends ALL THE LAW AND THE PROPHET. It is' this same moral value that can summarize God "God IS love."

What that means is that ALL LAWS issuing from God are derived from his MORAL NATURE (his heart) or else they could not ALL be summarized under a MORAL VALUE (love) and that makes any violation of any of his laws a MORAL issue, a behaviorial issue TOWARD GOD.

 

The essence of death is separation! Spiritual separation, physical separation and eternal separation from God. Jesus did experience separation from the Father on the Cross as in his own words he says "Why hast thou forsaken me." He is quoting from Psalm 22:1 and in the context the answer is given "because thou art holy" and Paul says that on the cross he was "made to be sin." So, yes, Jesus suffered not merely physical death but suffered "separation" from the Father on the cross. Obviously he was not made to be a "sinner" and thus "sinful" but made to be "sin" by substitutionary by position under the law.

The fact that he was "made to be sin" on the cross justifies the wrath of God poured upon him as the substitute for sinners. Isaiah 53 depicts all the suffering on the cross as coming directly from God due to our sins. Nothing could be plainer and therefore so much for the "Christus Victor" theory!