What if Calvin is Correct...

Then why not list Christ's "divine attributes" as supported by specific scripture. And why not address which "divine attributes" Jesus gained when He was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power?

 

John 3:13 (NKJV). No one has ascended into heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of man who is in heaven.' Unlike most theologians today, Calvin would have been using a Bible that contained the last four words of the verse.

The answer is (b). At the incarnation, the Lord Jesus Christ became something that He had not been before, but He never ceased to be what He has always been-- Almighty God, reigning in heaven.

BTW, very rarely have I seen John 3:13 referenced back to Proverbs 30:4. I wonder why that is; it seems obvious to me.

 

Please provide a link to "STs"

I asked you the question, and your response is dodgy. If you had said, "Jesus did not gain any divine attributes" when He was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power" that would be an actual answer. Then of course we could have discussed how come Jesus preformed miracles by the power of the Holy Spirit.

 

No offense to anyone REALLY...

But I believe Satan (and his followers) was/were also perplexed at how the second person of the HOLY Trinity could become a human being and retain His holiness and all the other attributes of God...

Matthew 4:3 And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread.

Matthew 4:6 And saith unto him, If thou be the Son of God, cast thyself down: for it is written, He shall give his angels charge concerning thee: and in their hands they shall bear thee up, lest at any time thou dash thy foot against a stone.

Matthew 27:40 And saying, Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself.
If thou be the Son of God, come down from the cross.

In the incarnation announcement to Mary, I believe Gabriel the archangel had the answer we are ALL looking for.

Luke 1:37 For with God nothing shall be impossible.

Ecclesiastes 8:17 Then I beheld all the work of God, that a man cannot find out the work that is done under the sun: because though a man labour to seek it out, yet he shall not find it; yea further; though a wise man think to know it, yet shall he not be able to find it.

HankD

 

Without supporting what exactly are the divine attributes of Jesus, by specific reference to scripture, study of this topic is impossible.
No scripture says Jesus is "omniscient" but at least three indicate He is all knowing. But without looking at those verses, we cannot come to a consensus as to what He was "all knowing" about. It was not everything, because He did not know the time of His return.

 

I do not see the term 'Son of Man' as an exclusively human title. It is simply the Lord Jesus' favoured term for Himself. It speaks both of His humanity (Ezekiel) and His deity (Daniel 7).

There is a question as to where in John 3 the Lord Jesus finishes speaking and John begins commenting, but I have never heard of anyone suggesting that it is as early as verse 12. It is the Lord Jesus speaking and in verses 12-15, He is preaching Himself to Nicodemus as the God-Man, by referencing Proverbs 30:4 in v.13 and Numbers 21:8-9 in vs.14-15. Nicodemus, as a top O.T. teacher (v.10), should have got these allusions, and maybe back at home later on as he though back on the conversation, the penny finally dropped.

 

That seems convoluted.
Its as if Jesus had a divine mind [where he knew all] and a human mind, not all.
There is not the PERSON of the Son of God. a divine person, and another PERSON that is human. Jesus, as the God-man was one person.Likewise we are told that we have the mind of Christ.

Furthermore we are told about Lord this:
"Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men."
What does it mean that He "emptied Himself"?

 

Yes,Bygrace 4012, it is convoluted to slice Jesus in to two parts, such at the "God Part" did not give up any part of His divine attributes. But Phil. 2:6-8 clearly teaches He did, He (the reincarnate Second Person) emptied Himself.

The view being espoused in this thread does not stand up to study.

 

Yes, Bygrace 4012, it is convoluted to slice Jesus in to two parts, such at the "God Part" did not give up any part of His divine attributes. But Phil. 2:6-8 clearly teaches He did, He (the pre-incarnate Second Person) emptied Himself.

The view being espoused in this thread does not stand up to study.