Featured 2 Peter 2:1 shows Jesus died for the non-elect

Yes, this is even though "πνεῦμα" is in the neuter. Grammatically, Jesus would have used "τo παρακλτov", and "εκειvo", to agree with "πνεῦμα", as we have it in chapter 14. Even the fact that Jesus uses "ἄλλον" (another, like Himself) and not "ἕτερον", (another, different to Himself), which also shows the Personality of the Holy Spirit, as well as His Deity.

 

So why have basically all modern versions never called Him as an it then though?

 

Yes, I have just mentioned this

 

Because both Biblically and theologically, the Holy Spirit is a Person, as He "teaches, leads, prays, can be grieved, commissions, is called God, Lord,", etc. These cannot be said for something "impersonal".

 

Why not call Him as Jesus did though?

 

That is why he should not be called as an it!

"THE SPIRIT ITSELF" OR THE GREATEST DEFECT IN THE KJV - PRINT VERSION
Seems to answer this well!

 

I would not let the use of the neuter worry you, as it is purely a grammatical thing, agreement of gender. But as we have seen, Jesus refers to the Holy Spirit as a He as He is a Person as Jesus is. It is interesting that in 1 John 1:1, we see Jesus Christ referred to in the neuter gender: "Ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς, ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν, ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν, ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς". "that which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life". No one would ever use this to say Jesus is not a Person!

 

Those 2 cases would indeed show that despite being in the Greek as a neuter gender, really should always be as masculine for the Holy Spirit!

 

people don't really understand languages!

 

I doubt we could all agree on that either.

 

Sorry. Mods could you delete the link. I accidentally posted it. I wanted the gif, but pasted instead.

 

This is one of my previous posts in response to another member who has yet to answer:

Certainly the blood of Christ is the basis of salvation, but no man is redeemed solely because Christ died for his sins. If that were true, preaching the gospel would be vain. Therefore, if these false prophets were bought with the precious blood of Christ, they were saved. If they were saved, they were ultimately lost. Your interpretation of 2 Peter 2:1, then, proves more than you wish to admit. Furthermore, ἀγοράζω is also used in contexts having nothing to do with the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. I invite you to consult your Greek lexicons on this issue. Also, you now have redeemed men being cast into the lake of fire according to your view of the atonement.

This is really starting to get frustrating.

 

It is far superior to the Martin Andrews Version (MAV).