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Featured God Does Not Will Any To Be Lost, Some Men Do!

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by AndyAnsell, May 5, 2017.

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  1. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    God gave Adam and Eve an ability to choose between obeying or not. When they sinned, they fell completely, body, soul, and will. The whole man is now ensnared in sin.

    I am soooooo glad you brought up Joshua 24:15.

    “Now, therefore, fear the LORD and serve Him in sincerity and truth; and put away the gods which your fathers served beyond the River and in Egypt, and serve the LORD. If it is disagreeable in your sight to serve the LORD, choose for yourselves today whom you will serve: whether the gods which your fathers served which were beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you are living; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD.”[Joshua 24:14-15]

    Joshua tells the ppl in verse 14 to put away the gods their forefathers served both in Egypt and in the land the Amorites, wherein they now resided. He then tells them if it seems disagreeable to serve the LORD, then choose those gods their forefathers served in Egypt or in the land of the Amorites. Joshua then divided himself from their idolatry by saying "as for me and my house(my family iow), we will serve the LORD." That's the context of Joshua 24:15. They said they would serve the LORD but they eventually fell by the wayside, and kept not their word.
     
  2. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. Instead he is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance.[2 Peter 3:9]

    Now, who are the 'with you? Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours: Grace and peace be yours in abundance through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.[2 Peter 1:1-2]

    The target audience was the saved, not the lost. The elect of God, not those He justly left in their sins. He is not willing any of those He chose from BEFORE the creation of the world[Ephesians 1:4] to be lost. Jesus said all the Father gave Him, He lost none, except one(Judas, but he was given to Jesus to betray Him into the hands of wicked men to die and rise again to fulfill the scriptures). That is why He is not willing any of those who 'but He is patient with you, should perish. Paul carries the same thought in Romans 9.
     
  3. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    English versions that read, "ὑμᾶς":

    New International Version
    New Living Translation
    English Standard Version
    Berean Study Bible
    New American Standard Bible
    Holman Christian Standard Bible
    International Standard Version
    NET Bible
    Aramaic Bible in Plain English
    GOD'S WORD Translation
    New American Standard 1977
    American Standard Version
    Douay-Rheims Bible
    Darby Bible Translation
    English Revised Version

    Weymouth New Testament

    Greek Versions

    Nestle-Aland 27
    UBS 4th Ed
    Lachmann
    Tischendorf
    Westcott & Hort
    Tregelles
    Alford
    Souter
    A T Robertson

    Other Ancient Versions

    Old Latin Mss
    Latin Vulgate Mss
    Coptic - Bo
    Armenian

    Georgian



    Are you saying ALL of these got it wrong! You said numbers matter!!!
     
  4. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Brother Andy better recognize you're a Greek expert.

    Brother Andy, if you are not good with Greek, as in having years of being taught and having taught it, as Brother TC has, you'd best in dropping this discussion.
     
  5. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    The context is Jesus was talking about the Jews children, not the Jewish ppl en toto.

    This shows their rebellious hearts.
     
  6. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    No, Peter is the speaker here, so the reading that has slight textual support, which some on here say is the original, "US" would be required for Peter to include himself and the other believers. the reading "YOU" which is the original, as I have shown adopted by the greater majority of English, Greek and other ancient versions, would mean "NOT US". But Peter is here contending with those who mocked the Lord and His Word, and says to them, He is not willing that any of YOU are lost!
     
  7. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Okay, seeing Jesus propitiated all mankind, dying for all, God's wrath is now appeased. Now, how do any go to hell, seeing His wrath has been appeased? In your view, God will be casting many into an eternal hell He has no wrath for. That's a cruel God.
     
  8. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Again, if God's not willing any perish, then have many already done so?
     
  9. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    Simply put:

    "He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.” (John 3:36)

    "he who believes" will go to heaven; "he who does not believe" will go to hell. here we have spiritual choice, which is called FREE WILL! God does not send anyone to hell, they CHOOSE this when they reject Jesus Christ!
     
  10. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Yet none come to Jesus for salvation...What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin. As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands; there is no one who seeks God. All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.” “Their throats are open graves; their tongues practice deceit.”“The poison of vipers is on their lips.” “Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.” “Their feet are swift to shed blood; ruin and misery mark their ways, and the way of peace they do not know.” “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”[Romans 3:9-18]

    Paul started this by concluding all mankind, but Jews & Gentiles dead in their sins. In their deadness, none will seek God. Men in the flesh(context here means those devoid of God's Spirit, iow, spiritually dead, unregenerate) can not please God[Romans 8:8] and can not receive the things of God, as they are foolishness to them, and can not understand them, as they are Spiritually discerned. But none come to God of their own will/volition.
     
  11. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    Yes indeed, my point all the time, they had to CHOOSE to serve the One True Living God, Yahweh, or the devil! This requires FREE WILL!!!
     
  12. SovereignGrace

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    No, no, no, no...God's wrath is already appeased by the Son's atoning sacrifice. If He died for all, God's wrath has been appeased. There's none for Him to mete out. Yet God is going to send a multitude of siiners to an eternal hell He has no wrath over.
     
  13. SovereignGrace

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    But they were born sinless, we were not.

    Apples to dump trucks...
     
  14. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    No, he has a legitimate argument. Those favoring the CT have arguments they see as compelling while those who argue in favor of the BT have arguments they consider compelling. I was educated in and used, exclusively, the CT up until I started actually researching the issues involved. At that time I came to the conclusion that the BT is the better text to represent the autographs.

    The CT is the text with only slight textual support, as I pointed out by listing the manuscript evidence.

    Do you have the autograph for 2 Peter?

    English, yes. The "version of the month club" has produced around 200 English translations. Not all of them even remotely accurate. But the greatest majority of the Greek texts is clearly in favor of the Byzantine reading.

    And translations are not the best way to determine the probability of a reading. That smacks of Ruckmanism, "The English corrects the Greek."

    I weigh the evidence by using the rational rules of textual criticism.

    1. Number. "A theoretical presumption indeed remains that a majority of extant documents is more likely to represent a majority of ancestral documents at each stage of transmission than vice versa." (B. F. Westcott and F. J. A. Hort, Introduction to the New Testament in the Original Greek: With Notes on Selected Readings)

    2. Antiquity - The age of the actual manuscript. This is not a conclusive text for a 14th century mss may be an accurate copy of a 3rd century mss, whereas a 6th century mss may be a poor copy of a 3rd century mss.

    3. Consent - The number of other witnesses. Normal practice is to accept the word of the majority of witnessess against the different readings of a few, especially when those few do not agree with each other.

    4. Variety - The universality of evidence. Manuscripts supporting a certain reading should come from a variety of geographical locations and be attested to by a variety of other mss, lectionaries, versions, and Patristics.

    5. Respectability - The reliability of the witness. Manuscripts which habitually contain errors are poor witnesses.

    6. Continuity - The unbroken tradition of a witness. Have the readings/mss in question been widely accepted by churches over a wide spectrum of time? And what text does the Greek speaking church used from antiquity until this very day? Who is more likely to understand the issues of the transmission of the Greek text? A native Greek speaker or a person who learned the language later in life but still reads, writes, speaks, and thinks in his own native language?

    7. Context - The evidence of the whole passage. The nature of the text surrounding a questioned reading can cast much light on the issue. If the reading is surrounded by obvious errors, it is much less likely to be a true reading.

    8. Reasonableness - The internal credibility of the text. If a text contains grammatical absurdities, or obvious geographical, scientific, or biblical errors, the reading is not likely to be reliable.

    9. Geography. The area of origin of the manuscript. Did the manuscript originate in a geographic location to which books of the New Testament were addressed? A geographic location where the autographs may have existed for as much as several hundred years to which early copies could be compared with and corrected from.
     
  15. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    YES, YES, YES, you fail to grasp the fact that even though God's wrath has been appeased, this is ONLY done in Christ as the Atoning Sacrifice, which is effected when a sinner repents and believes. Jesus' work has been completed ONCE for all time, so that He does not like the priests in the Old Testament, need to be offered daily or yearly. Hebrews deals with this at length.
     
  16. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    No, I am saying the Greek text they were translated from, or the Greek manuscripts they were compiled from, got it wrong. :)

    Every textual critic recognizes that numbers matter. But we are not talking about vernacular translation, nor even compiled texts. We are talking about manuscript evidence. Apples and oranges. :)
     
  17. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    I can only repeat what I have already said. You cannot accept the reading "you" because it would cause problems with your "theology".
     
  18. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    You know my knowledge and level of Greek? Years mean nothing as I have seen flaws in conclusions by A T Robertson, Westcott, and Hort, George Winer, etc, all who were scholars in Greek. The point is that we need the Holy Spirit to guide us, and not our heads! And we must be honest in our dealing with the Word of God, even when it is against what we believe!
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi Andy, I see the usual suspects are posting change of subject posts, nitpicking and questioning your qualification for holding views contrary to Calvinism. Same ol, same ol.

    Returning to subject - does God really desire that all people be saved? If He does, then Jesus would have died for all people. Otherwise there would be no path for salvation for those Christ did not die for.

    Well, what about the problem that if God desires all people to be saved, then why are not all people saved? Here we must consider whether God is the God of compulsion, where He compels some to choose death, and via irresistible grace, compels other s to choose live. But scripture says God sets both choices (life or death) before us and begs us to choose life. So the answer from scripture is God desires all people to be saved - according to His redemption plan - which is for us, as best we can to choose life.
    He provides the gospel, witnesses, and those that till the ground, plant the word, and water such that some choose life. That is the redemption plan.

    Once you understand the actual redemption plan, all of scripture fits together perfectly.
     
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  20. AndyAnsell

    AndyAnsell Member
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    Calvinists are sour pusses! They don't like being wrong, even when they are! Nor do they like being backed up in a corner, and then they can get nasty and try to make to look a fool or throw a load to rubbish your way. I have been a believer for over 35 years now to see how they work. Not much different in their approach from the Jehovah's Witnesses!
     
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