Would this be a fair statement?

I was being sarcastic, and giving the KY Redneck a taste of his own medicine. Look back at his post to me, just prior.

 

Wasn't the fate of the condemned predestined when they weren't predestined to salvation?

 

No,

For all were condemned.

"For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God."

Therefore, the destination is determined already. The sentence has been placed, and transportation is waiting upon the appointed time.

God did not have to condemn, the condemnation was already.

God took by His good pleasure those of His own desires to redeem. He, therefore, of those who are already destined for the lake of fire, predestined those of His own choosing to heaven.

This is why Romans states: "There is, therefore, no condemnation ..."

God did not predestine to the lake of fire. Such was the determined course (the Broadway) that all were determined of their own fallen nature to pleasurably stroll.

 

Hmmm. That's interesting. Do you obey the Great Commission? You know that it was addressed to the 11, right?

 

How do suppose then one is saved?

For example, some teach that there is some preceding or prevenient grace (Wesley's taught this) in which God lifts a person into such a state as they may of their own will choose.

However, there is not a single Scripture in all the Book that identifies such a grace given to the lost.

Some teach that they have the authority of their own will to make such a decision as to acquire or activate God's attention that God grant (if that person is sincere enough) salvation.

However, there is not a single Scripture in all the Book that identifies such decision making ability of the unsaved.

Some teach that the Holy Spirit must do the work of awakening that person to the claims of Christ upon their life and as the Holy Spirit using the Scriptures confronts that person in the awful condition of their sinfulness, they express belief in Christ.

Such is presented in the Scriptures. Romans 10:10

 

And John 15:16 discredits Ephesians 1:11?

 

What does predestine mean?

 

Since the fact that people who believe as the Calvinists do, it would make sense that they could cite a verse for what they believe about those who God has chosen for eternal torment.

They continue to talk about the chosen for heaven but never those who are chosen for hell. I realize that all of us are destined for hell as unbelievers but when they teach God chooses some for heaven by default He chooses some for hell.[/QUOTE]
No.

You are mistaken.

Just because God purposes to select, from all that are already going to the lake of fire, those that are to be redeemed, does not mean that God "predestined" those to hell who by their own nature are walking that Broadway.

They are already condemned, ALL are already destined for hell. There is no "predetermination" made by God as to the fate of those who of their own will determine to destine themselves to the Lake of Fire. ALL are "condemned already," except of those He purposes for His glory and pleasure to redeem.

 

Who was Jesus speaking to in John 3:16?

 

In the presentation as from the perspective of God, it is to establish the fate of those He chooses to redeem.

What you seem to present is that in some manner God pre-determined who would be saved and who would be lost.

Not true. Humankind were not born without sin, but in sin, condemned already.

God must determine from all that are lost those whom He redeems.

He does not determine all that are lost. They are condemned already. Lost already. God didn't condemn them, they store up wrath for themselves. (Romans 2:5)