The Function of the Law in the New Covenant

No. I studied NCT but do not think they have it right. I'm closest to the Reformed view. But I make a clean break with the Old Covenant in the sense of being totally abolished and replaced by the New. The moral, civil, and ceremonial Law divisions are man made and artificial. But Jesus and the NT writers imported most of the Ten Commandments as commentary and instruction in righteousness. (I take exception with the Sabbath since Paul says one observes all days, or one day, or none at all.) But if the Old Covenant remained in any part, as the Reformed say, then we must do it all as Paul and James say.

Before the Ten Commandments, were the Two Great Commandments. God rephrased them under Ten Headings to control the wicked in terms they understood, under threat of death. But the spiritual element in Israel had the Two Great Commandments in their heart, fully realised through a circumcised heart (new birth). And used the Ten Commandments as physical illustrations of spiritual truth. You did not need to tell them not to steal etc., etc.

 

The Moral law of God in still in effect though, correct? the Apostles of Jesus brought over to us now under the NC all bu tthe Sabbath Commandment to keep, correct?

 

Is what he holds to essentially being now under the Law of Christ?

 

"God's Moral Law" is a misnomer. Man has declared it "God's Moral Law". Man separated God's Commands as "Ceremonial, Civil, and Moral," but you will not find that in either Testaments. We Live under the Royal Law--Love. The 10 commandments is not a "moral Law," but a covenant established By God with His People prior to Christ.

 

They are the Moral law of God revealed unto us, as the divine expression of what behavior God expects to have in his own people.

 

What is "They"? The Ten Commandments? You think God expects us to live by the Ten Commandments? How do we live by a bunch of "don't do's" and "Shall not's"?

 

God gave them to show us just how Holy God is, to expose his Morals to us, and regulate our behavior on an individual and society basis!

 

Morals are a construct of man.

 

Brother, you have no idea what you are talking about (Yes, They Declare His Holiness--i agree there).

1 Tim. 1-
8 Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it lawfully, 9 understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, 10 the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound[c] doctrine, 11 in accordance with the gospel of the glory of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted.

Maybe you missed this?

6 Certain persons, by swerving from these, have wandered away into vain discussion,7 desiring to be teachers of the law, without understanding either what they are saying or the things about which they make confident assertions.

Because Paul makes it very clear....

5 The aim of our charge is love that issues from a pure heart and a good conscience and a sincere faith.

 

One thing these verses show is that the Decalogue is of a different order to the ceremonial and judicial laws.

Your verses above notwithstanding, I do not accept that the Mosaic Covenant and the Decalogue are synonymous. As has been stated, all the 10 commandments appear in the Bible before Exodus 19.

It is my contention that the Decalogue was given to, and written on the heart of, Adam in the garden (1689 Confession XIX:1-2). Just suppose that Adam had made an altar to the sun, or strangled Eve in a fit of rage. Do you suppose that God would have said, "Oh, that alright, Adam! Just so long as you don't eat the apple!" Of course not!
The law written on Adam's heart is now smudged and defaced by the fall (c.f. Genesis 5:3), but it is not eradicated altogether. 'For when the Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law.......show the work of the law written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness.......' (Romans 2:14-15). We all know unsaved people who aspire to high moral standards, but of course they can never keep God's laws fully.
Under the Old Covenant, the Moral Law was written on stone tablets so that everyone knew exactly what God's righteous commandments are, but because the vast majority of Israelites were not born from above, they were not able to keep them. In the New Covenant, all believers are born again and have the moral law written once again on their hearts (2 Corinthians 3:3; Hebrews 8:10 etc.). This second writing of the law on the heart is wonderfully adumbrated in God's writing of the law a second time after the first tablets had been broken (Exodus 34:1-4).

So who is the 'blessed....man' whose 'delight is in the law of the LORD' (Psalm 1:1-2)? Who can say, "Oh, how I love Your law! It is my meditation all the day" Psalm 119:97)? It is the man who is saved by grace, who has the law written on his heart, 'Whose transgression is forgiven, whose sin is covered......to whom the LORD does not impute iniquity' (Psalm 32:1-2). The regenerate person 'Delight in the law of God after the inward man' (Romans 7:22). Even though he laments that he cannot keep it better than he does (Psalm 119:5-6), he rejoices that 'There is now therefore no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit' (Romans 8:1), and that the Good Shepherd will 'Lead [him] in the paths of righteousness for His name's sake' (Psalm 23:3).

This is hopeless! You have turned the Ten Commandments into the Ten Recommendations. If I want to know how to keep the 'two great commandments,' I need to look at the Decalogue. I don't know whether you are in church leadership, but I can assure you that I have seen people make the most desperate shipwreck of their lives because they have been told to love God, but not been told that loving God means keeping His commandments (John 14:15).

 

Do you think God expects Christians not to live by the Ten Commandments (John 14:15)?
You ask how we live by them; we walk in the Spirit. It is the Christian's delight to keep God's commandments (Psalm 119 passim).

 

Romans 13:10 Love works no ill to his neighbor: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

 

false

 

Show me why brother

 

Here is a little bit on it...from A Baptist commentary with Commentary:

Antinomians [Gk. anti, “against,” and nomos, “law”] hold that the Moral Law has been abrogated through the redemptive work of the Lord Jesus Christ. Thus, it allegedly has no place in the believer’s life.
[Some antinomians hold that “the law” has been replaced by “grace,” and that since our Lord’s sacrificial death, the law is irrelevant. Thus, it has no relationship to either unbelievers or believers].

. Which of the Ten Commandments, as the epitome of the Moral Law, with the possible exception of the Fourth, has been abrogated? None. Each Commandment is yet in force and its breaking is considered as sin. The Sabbath issue, rightly understood, also needs to find its modern expression in both proper observance and in the anticipation of eternal glory.

. The issue is not the abrogation of the Ten Commandments, but a scriptural approach to their perpetual relevancy, as they are all clearly reiterated in the New Testament, except for the Sabbath observance, which assumes a New Covenant context.
The Law as a covenant has not been abrogated. Rather, its content has been modified and its administration has been changed: first, its content has been modified. The Ceremonial Law—priesthood, sacrificial system and rituals—was fulfilled in the Person and redemptive work of our Lord. The Civil Law with its social restrictions and dietary laws were largely national and historical. The Old Testament distinctives of the covenant people of God [national Israel] were essentially physical, dietary and ceremonial; the New Testament distinctives of God’s covenant people [believers] are spiritual. In this context, the idea of “law” in the Epistle to the Galatians must be considered. The Apostle Paul is referring to “law” in an inclusive sense, not to the Moral Law, as he sets “law” and “grace” in juxtaposition. He includes Jewish festivals and circumcision in this idea of “law,” and so is opposing the general Mosaic institution as representative of a works–religion as opposed to the gospel of grace. The issue is justification, not sanctification; works as opposed to the gospel of grace.

The Moral Law remains as the revelation and epitome of God’s holy and righteous character. Second, its administration has been changed. (Ezk. 36:25–27; Jer. 31:31– 34; Heb. 8:1–13; Rom. 2:11–16; 6:14; 8:1–9; 2 Cor. 3:1–3, 6). The Law of

The relevance and perpetuity of the Moral Law may be understood by the following considerations:
first, the prologue to the Decalogue sets the historical, redemptive and covenantal context for the Law: “And God spake all these words, saying, I am the LORD thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage” (Ex.20:1–2). God reveals himself as Israel’s covenant God and Redeemer. Thus, the Law was given to a redeemed covenant people that they might reflect the moral character of the Lord their God, not as a means to salvation or simply as a legalistic document for Israel. Redemption requires revelation, and revelation contains legislation in both the Old and New Covenants (Rom. 3:19–20; 1 Tim. 1:8–10; 1 Jn. 2:3– 5). This historic giving of the Law in this codified manner must be understood in the greater context of the Abrahamic Covenant (Gen. 12:1–3; Ex. 2:24; Dt. 29:12–13). Believers in the Gospel economy are likewise to reflect the moral character of God as his redeemed covenant people in Jesus Christ (Heb. 12:14; 1 Pet. 1:14–16; 2:9), who is the true “Seed of Abraham” and the fulfillment of that covenantal promise (Gal. 3:6–26). The Law magnifies the Lord Jesus. His redemptive work fulfilled its demands as to our justification. We are to reflect the righteousness of the Law as to our sanctification in obedience to him by the grace and Spirit of God (Rom. 8:1–4; 1 Jn. 2:3–5).

Second, the nature, character and self–revelation of God must determine the relevance of the Law—not our own thinking or feelings. God is immutable. The Moral Law is the transcript of his moral self–consistency or absolutely righteous character. This is why the Moral Law and its abiding principles reoccur in the New Testament and have a necessarily close affinity with the Gospel (Matt. 22:37–39; Rom. 7:12, 14; 8:1–4; Gal. 3:24; Tim. 1:5– 11; 6:14–16; Jas. 2:8; 1 Pet. 1:15–16).

Finally, the Moral Law of God is not only reiterated—it is strengthened in the New Testament, which reveals its true spiritual nature (Matt. 5:17–19, 27– 29; 43–44, 48; Rom. 7:12; 1 Tim. 1:5–11; 1 Jn. 3:15). Faith does not render the Law of God void, but rather establishes it (Rom. 3:21–31). As believers, we “died to the law” as an instrument of condemnation. By virtue of our union with Christ and faith in him the Law is established, not abrogated (Rom. 3:21–31; 7:4; Gal. 2:16–21). This “establishment of the Law” by faith is shown in two ways: first, in his active [his holy, blameless life] and passive [his suffering and death] obedience, our Lord vicariously both kept the Law for us and then paid its penalty. Thus, the claims of the Law against us have been fully answered by virtue of our union with Christ. Second, upon the basis of our Lord’s redemptive work, the Holy Spirit enables us to conform to the Law in principle. This is not justifying behavior, but the sanctifying work of the Spirit of grace (Ezk. 36:25–27; Rom. 6:14; 8:1–4; 2 Cor. 3:1–6; Gal. 5:22–23; Heb. 8:1–13).

 

The Law and the Saint by Arthur W. Pink

The "Law of God" expresses the mind of the Creator, and is binding upon all rational creatures. It is God’s unchanging moral standard for regulating the conduct of all men. In some places "the Law of God" may refer to the whole revealed will of God, but in the majority it has reference to the Ten Commandments; and it is in this restricted sense we use the term. This Law was impressed on man’s moral nature from the beginning, and though now fallen, he still shows the work of it written in his heart. This law has never been repealed, and in the very nature of things, cannot be. For God to abrogate the moral Law would be to plunge the whole universe into anarchy. Obedience to the Law of God is man’s first duty. That is why the first complaint that Jehovah made against Israel after they left Egypt was, "How long refuse ye to keep Mycommandments and My laws" (Ex. 16:27). That is why the first statutes God gave to Israel were the Ten Commandments, i. e. the moral Law. That is why in the firstdiscourse of Christ recorded in the New Testament He declared, "Think not that I am come to destroy the Law, or the Prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill" (Matt: 5 :17), and then proceeded to expound and enforce the moral Law. And that is why in the first of the Epistles, the Holy Spirit has taught us at length the relation of the Law to sinners and saints, in connection with salvation and the subsequent walk of the saved: the word "law" occurs in Romans no less than seventy-five times, though, of course, not every reference is to the Law of God. And that is why sinners (Rom. 3:19) and saints (Jas. 2:12) shall be judged by this Law.

The "Law of Moses" is the entire system of legislation, judicial and ceremonial, which Jehovah gave to Israel during the time they were in the wilderness. The Law of Moses, as such, is binding upon none but Israelites. This Law has not been repealed. That the Law of Moses is not binding on Gentiles is clear from Acts 15.

The "Law of Christ" is God’s moral Law, but in the hands of the Mediator. It is the Law which Christ Himself was "made under" (Gal. 4:4). It is the Law which was "in His heart" (Psa. 40:8). It is the Law which He came to "fulfill" (Matt. 5:17). The "Law of God" is now termed "the Law of Christ" as it relates to Christians. As creatures we are under bonds to "serve the Law of God" (Rom. 7:25). As redeemed sinners we are "the bondslaves of Christ" (Eph. 6:6), and as such we are under bonds to "serve the Lord Christ" (Col. 3:24). The relation between these two appellations, "the law of God" and "the Law of Christ" is clearly intimated in 1 Cor. 9:21, where the apostle states, that he was not without Law to God," for he was "under the Law of Christ". The meaning of this is very simple. As a human creature, the apostle was still under obligation to obey the moral Law of God his Creator; but as a saved man he now belonged to Christ, the Mediator, by redemption. Christ had purchased him: he was His, therefore, he was "under the Law of Christ". The "Law of Christ", then, is just the moral Law of God now in the hands of the Mediator and Redeemer—cf. Ex. 34 :1 and what follows!

Should any object against our definition of the distinction drawn between God’s moral Law and "the Law of Moses" we request them to attend closely to what follows. God took special pains to show us the clear line of demarcation which He has Himself drawn between the two. The moral Law became incorporated in the Mosaic Law, [And this of necessity. As already stated, the Ten Commandments reveal the will of the Creator for every human creature, and as Israelites were first God’s creatures before being brought into the relationship of His covenant people, the moral Law was given to them before the Mosaic Law. This explains why the Ten Commandments are repeated in Deut. 5. In Ex. 20 they are addressed to God’s creatures; in Deut. 5, to Israel as Jehovah’s covenant people. Mark the absence in Deut. 5 of "God spake all these words"!] yet was it sharply distinguished from it. The proof of this is as follows: —

 

1. "For as many as have sinned without Law shall also perish without Law.., for when the Gentiles which have not the Law, do by nature the things contained in the Law, these, having not the Law, are a Law unto themselves" (Rom. 2:12-14). These verses really have no direct bearing on our present theme, inasmuch as they treat of other than saints. Yet, as this passage does relate to the wider subject of the Law in general, and as it is made use of by those who flatly and hotly deny the Law has any relation to believers today, we give it a brief notice.

It is affirmed by some whom we respect, but from whom on this subject we are obliged to differ, that the Law was given to the nation of Israel and to none else, and therefore, that neither Gentiles nor Christians are under any obligation to keep it. That the Law was formally given to Israel at Sinai is freely granted. But does that prove it was meant for none other than the descendants of Jacob? Surely not. When writing to the saints at Rome (many of whom were Gentiles, see 1:13; 11:13; 15:15, 16, etc.) Paul said, "But now we are delivered from the Law" (7:6). Again; in 8:7 he declares, "The carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the Law of God, neither indeed can be": mark, it is not "the Jewish mind", but the "carnal mind" in Jew and Gentile alike. Now, there would be no point to this statement if the mind of man, as man, is not obligated to be in subjection to the Law of God. Man’s mind is not subject, and because of its innate depravity "cannot be"; nevertheless, it ought to be. Once more: note how in Eph. 2:2 the wicked are said to be "children of disobedience": this is meaningless if they are not under obligation to obey the commandments of God. These scriptures, then, are sufficient to establish the fact that Gentiles, as well as Jews, are "under the Law".

Returning now to Rom. 2:12, 13. The simple meaning of these verses is that, the Gentiles never had given to them the two tables of stone on which the Ten Commandments were inscribed, nor were they in possession of the Scriptures, wherein those Commandments were recorded. But it should be carefully noted that Rom. 2:5 goes on to state these very Gentiles "show the work of the Law written on their hearts". On these verses Prof. Stifler has well said, "The argument (of v. 14) lies in this, that Gentiles have what is tantamount to the moral Law". The fact that the Gentiles are "a law unto themselves" shows that God gave them the equivalent of what He gave the Jews, namely, a standard of right and wrong. In the case of the former, it was "written in their hearts", in the case of the latter, it was written on tables of stone, and afterwards in the Scriptures. "From this it is clear that the moral Law given to Israel by Moses was but a transcript, or compendium, of the Law which God, in the creation, had stamped upon the moral nature of man. . . . The moral Law, therefore, was not altogether new in the time of the exodus; nor was it something exclusively for Israel, but was a gift for the whole race, and therefore, must be of perpetual validity" (Mr. Wm. Mead).