Yes. I do recall. I also recall that when I explained my view I had several verses of Scripture backing up each and every point of my position. Do you remember your criticism then (it was a little over a year ago, so you may not)? Your complaint was that my view was Scripture without interpretation. You actually condemned my view for not being theoretical enough!
I recall it extremely well. You had typed out reams of your philosophical musings without any Scripture to back them up. When I and others pleaed with you to provide some, you printed our a dozen or so verses without any context or reference to your argument! You did the same more recently in response either to
@The Archangel or
@The Biblicist. You simply pasted the first part of John's Gospel, again without any explanation of what you understand the verses to mean. It's no wonder that those two gentlemen have given up in despair. You probably think you won the argument!
So the charge of not using Scripture (and providing the reference) really does not wash. It's a fabrication of the worst kind. My view remains the same - I accept Scripture but I do not accept your theory. I believe when we reject a view for holding too close to Scripture (apart from dogmatic interpretation) what we are looking for is not theology but philosophy. That is, in my opinion, what you engage in most often. You provide Scripture but only to prop up a philosophical assumption. We look at handling Scripture differently.[/QUOTE} You got the last sentence right. The rest is just smug, patronizing claptrap I'm afraid.
We already agreed that where we disagree is not Scripture (we affirm the exact same passages) but in how they are interpreted. Do you not see it as a fools errant to repeat Isaiah 53 and Romans 3 when we affirm the same passages?
No, I don't. I shall continue to quote Scripture at all times to support my arguments. I shall continue to quote chapter and verse as well, because unlike you I do not misquote the Scriptures as you have done recently with 1 John 1:9.
The problem goes back to your claim last December that my view is merely bits of Scripture divorced from interpretation. The real issue, however, is that I believe those passages are enough to articulate an understanding of the Atonement without the addition of theories, traditions, and presuppositions. If Scripture is sufficient then, in my opinion, the additions your theory makes is a corruption of Scripture under the pretense of "doing theology". I believe the result of this philosophical approach to the Cross is the creation of a Christian mythology through which many are blinded to some truths of God's Word. That said, I praise God that the gospel of Jesus Christ shines through these humanistic endeavors to approach the Cross.
The devil can quote Scripture, for crying out loud! The truth of Scripture is not established by 'it is written' (Matthew 4:6), but in 'It is written again' (Matthew 4:7). Scripture must be compared with Scripture,and the true understanding deduced. It appears that for all your studies, you have never learned 2 Timothy 2:15.
[/QUOTE I am no less a believer when I affirmed your theories than I am now as I reject them.
I hope that is true. You are certainly a more foolish one (Galatians 3:1).
There may also be a bit of a difference in how we reference. In seminary we were told to assume (in theological discussion between Baptists) that the opposing position has the same bible. I don't know if that's just my experience in seminary, but it has stuck. I also confess it is perhaps a guilty pleasure when "my" words are rejected and they are in fact God's words. I probably shouldn't be that way, but for me it drives home the error of your theory.
I tend to think the "copy and past" Scripture people do so because they do not have a firm grasp of Scripture itself (they can't interact with Scripture). But that's just my presupposition.
[/QUOTE]

Do you really not realise how pompous you sound?
I am glad. I was starting to think our conversations fruitless.
The first statement is, of course, false. For it to be correct you would have to say "I believe you believe wrongly", as I do you.
No. You are wrong. Certainly you have failed to convince me otherwise.
I agree that peace had to be made through the blood of the Cross. And I agree there was enmity between Satan and man (I take it you are referring to Genesis).
No. there is enmity between sinful man and God.
'For the carnal mind is enmity towards God' (Romans 8:7), and
'...the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men' (Romans 1:18).
I also agree that there is a wrath to come and that through Christ we escape that wrath.
But Scripture itself does not break down the cross into segmented doctrines. Scripture does not say that the Cross was God satisfying the demands of Divine Justice.
I believe Scripture says pretty much exactly that.
'God set Him forth as a propitiation.........to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Scripture does not say that God poured out His wrath on Christ.
There is a whole bevy of verses which, taken together, say exactly that.
Do you know what Scripture DOES say about the Cross (hazard a guess)? It says that it was God reconciling the world to Himself, not counting people's transgressions against them. It does not, as you suppose, say it was God paying a "sin debt" so that He could reconcile the world.
Ah! Reconciliation. I was reading
The Doctrine of Reconciliation by A.W. Pink only the other day. You should read it. It's the most detailed discussion of the subject I know.
Reconciliation between two parties requires a mediator. In the Scriptures we have the concept of the mediator, one who might fill up the gap between the outraged holiness of God and rebellious man (Isaiah 59:2). Job complained,
“For He is not a man, as I am, that I should answer Him, and that we should go to court together. Nor is there any mediator between us who may lay his hand on us both.” But mediation requires a satisfaction to be made to the offended party.
We see this is the book of Philemon. Here we have an offended party, Philemon, whose servant has run away from him, perhaps stealing some goods as he went; an offending party, Onesimus, and Paul who is attempting to mediate between them. Onesimus needs to return to his master, but fears the sanctions that may be imposed upon him if he does so. Paul takes these sanctions upon himself:
‘But if he has wronged you or owes anything, put that on my account. I, Paul, am writing with my own hand. I will repay…..’ (Philemon 18-19). Whatever is wanting to propitiate Philemon’s anger against his servant and to effect reconciliation, Paul the mediator willingly agrees to provide. In the same way, the Lord Jesus has become a Mediator between men and God (1 Timothy 2:5).
In 2 Corinthians 5:19, we learn that God does not impute trespasses against His people; in Christ; He has reconciled the world [believing Jew and Gentile alike] to Himself. How has He done this? Through the Mediator Jesus Christ.
‘For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us….’ (v.21). The Lord Jesus has taken our sins upon Himself and made satisfaction to God for them. Therefore the message of reconciliation can be preached to all.
I don't disagree with your Scripture. I disagree with your explanation (your theory or tradition, how ever you prefer to think of it is fine).
Well actually I think of it as you disagreeing with the truth.

I'm glad that's OK with you.
That is why I've repeatedly asked you to prove your theory of divine justice (something you've repeatedly declined).
Oh Boy! I wrote a whole screed on it for you at your request, and you never did so much as look at it so far as I know Here it is again.
The Theological and Biblical Basis of Penal Substitution
But is this what the Bible says? Or does the Bible say that Creation was subjected to futility by God Himself?
It certainly does. And what point are you trying to make?
He had to be made like us in all things.
Why?
He had to become a curse for us to redeem us from the curse.
Why? And whose curse was it? And why was it made?
He had to die in order to become the Firstborn of many brethren (yes, those are passages...no I'm not going to provide the references).
Why? Why does He have to die in order to become that? Why couldn'r He come and teach and then become the Firstborn of those who accept His teaching? Why does He have to die?
But what does the Bible NOT say? It does not say that Jesus had to die to satisfy the demands of divine justice by having God pour upon Him the wrath reserved for the wicked at judgment. It does not say God separated from Jesus on the Cross.
I think you'll find it says both those things.(e.g. Isaiah 53:5; Psalms 22:1).
It even goes so far as to say that it is an abomination to God to condemn the righteous.
Indeed it does. That it why Christ was made sin for us (Psalm 69:5). God punished sin, but He did so in Christ.
That does not mean God simply justifies the wicked,
Your theory seems to mean exactly that. At least, you have to explain why it doesn't.