Only in a very limited area of study--in this case, only in certain numerical problems.
Actually, I did answer your question about my quote, but apparently you didn't follow my logic. Here is is. If the MT mss are proven by the DSS mss to be older than the LXX mss, then the MT mss are superior to the LXX mss. Got it?
Apparently we are arguing about two different things here. I am willing to admit that in a few cases LXX numbers might reflect the original documents of Scripture. But judging by your OP and some posts you seem to be arguing for the overall superiority of the LXX over the MT. So, what are you arguing for?
If you are arguing for the overall superiority of the LXX to any Hebrew OT, this type of thing (a translation over the original) has been done several times in history: (1) by Augustine to Jerome making the LXX superior to the Hebrew text Jerome had. (2) By the Roman Catholic religion making the Latin Vulgate the authoritative text over the originals. (3) By Peter Ruckman, saying that the KJV should be used to correct the original Hebrew OT and Greek NT.
However, the inspiration of Scripture extends to the original, not to any translation (2 Tim. 3:16). To disagree with this is to depart from orthodoxy.