There can be no question, no doubt whatsoever that John the Baptist identified Christ with the levitical sacrificial lamb (Jn. 1:29) with regard to his mission to deal with sin.
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. - Jn. 1:29
Therefore, it cannot be disputed successfully that the Levitical sacrifice was typical of Christ's death "for the sin of the world."
The substitutionary basis of the sacrificial lamb's death is repeatedly said to be "for our sins" as the sacrificial lamb had to be "without spot or blemish" which is a type of sinlessness just as the lamb is a type of Christ and therefore the death of the lamb could not be for his own sins. Hence, the substitutionary element of the atonement is clearly demonstrated by scripture.
Nor can it be gainsaid that "death" is the penalty (thus PENAL condemnation) for violating the law of God (Gen. 2:17; Rom.5:12-19; 1 Jn. 3:6) and since Christ had no sins of his own then on the cross he is the LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE for those who do have sins and therefore the PENALTY of the law is being satisfied in his own death as there is no other cause for his death apart from satisfaction of God's PENAL consequences for violation of his law.
I make no claim that Jesus suffered death due to his own sins nor do I make any claim that God's penal consequences against sins which necessitated the death of Christ as the representative head for his people was directed toward Christ in any kind of PERSONAL manner but only as the LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE for his people who were born into this world by nature as "children OF WRATH" (Eph. 2:3) and thus God's penal wrath against sin was satisfied in the death of Christ as a LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE PERSON for those who are children "of wrath."
I believe any rejection of either the "substitutionary" or "penal" aspect of the atonement is complete and absolute heresy to the worst extent in so much it is a repudiation of the "truth" of the gospel.
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. - Jn. 1:29
Therefore, it cannot be disputed successfully that the Levitical sacrifice was typical of Christ's death "for the sin of the world."
The substitutionary basis of the sacrificial lamb's death is repeatedly said to be "for our sins" as the sacrificial lamb had to be "without spot or blemish" which is a type of sinlessness just as the lamb is a type of Christ and therefore the death of the lamb could not be for his own sins. Hence, the substitutionary element of the atonement is clearly demonstrated by scripture.
Nor can it be gainsaid that "death" is the penalty (thus PENAL condemnation) for violating the law of God (Gen. 2:17; Rom.5:12-19; 1 Jn. 3:6) and since Christ had no sins of his own then on the cross he is the LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE for those who do have sins and therefore the PENALTY of the law is being satisfied in his own death as there is no other cause for his death apart from satisfaction of God's PENAL consequences for violation of his law.
I make no claim that Jesus suffered death due to his own sins nor do I make any claim that God's penal consequences against sins which necessitated the death of Christ as the representative head for his people was directed toward Christ in any kind of PERSONAL manner but only as the LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE for his people who were born into this world by nature as "children OF WRATH" (Eph. 2:3) and thus God's penal wrath against sin was satisfied in the death of Christ as a LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE PERSON for those who are children "of wrath."
I believe any rejection of either the "substitutionary" or "penal" aspect of the atonement is complete and absolute heresy to the worst extent in so much it is a repudiation of the "truth" of the gospel.