Featured Textual Criticism.

So is your argument that the longer ending or Mark is apostolic or not? Not sure which thread you discussed this on.

As far as Luke 4:4. Plently of early witnesses, even outside of Greek contain the shorter reading. א‎ B L W 1241 SYs SA BOpt

As far as John 13:2, this is tense change of the same verb γίνομαι. The pre 8th century evidence favors the present tense. The other reading is aorist. Which doesn't even mean supper has to be finished. Just means it has to be served. To say 99.5% has "ended", is not accurate.
The verb in the aorist often means "it happened" or "it became" . This could easily mean after the supper started.

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Well, I didn't say anything for or against the longer ending. I spoke of the other passges....so of course I didnt prove anything against it.

However if you speak of passages like John 13.
Lets say that γενομένου (TR) is correct and the NA28 is wrong with γινομένου. Why in Matthew 26:6 does the KJV say Jesus "being" in Bethany instead of Jesus "ended" in Bethany? The same exact form of the Greek word in the TR is used in Matt 26:6 and John 13:2. If that word means "ended" like you say, which one did the KJV get wrong?

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To me, NA28 has been wrong 27 times.
That's why they keep revising it.

As I see it, UBS 5 has been wrong 4 times.
That's why they keep revising it.

It doesn't.
In the English, it says, " Now when Jesus was in Bethany, in the house of Simon the leper," ( Matthew 26:6 )

In the Greek, it states ( carried over into English ), " Of-the yet Jesus becoming in Bethany in home of Simon".
I agree, the word "was" isn't as close to the Greek ( even in the TR ) as "ended" seems to be, but to me, the translators looked at context to determine the correct rendering of the word.

" Now when Jesus was in Bethany, in the house of Simon the leper,
7 there came unto him a woman having an alabaster box of very precious ointment, and poured it on his head, as he sat [at meat]." ( Matthew 26:6-7 ).

Neither, in my opinion.
They used context in both cases to determine how the Greek should be rendered.

 

A joke?
The TR has had many more editions and revisions over its history.

Rob

 

No joke.
To my knowledge, the TR hasn't had nearly as many.

 

Correct it does say "was"....not sure why I did that. Thanks for point it out. But like you acknowledged. It is still different in both spots

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Yes, and I admit that.
I gave you the reason I see it the way I do, good sir.

 

http://www.gutenberg.org/files/26134/26134-pdf.pdf

 

It seems that much of the evidence comes down to Ancient versus Plentiful. I can't fault a brother for leaning one way or the other.

But I really scratch my head when arguments are made for the inclusion of the Johannine Comma. I just can't see a good argument for it.

 

...yeah....and you skipped ahead in the argument. Hahaha. It is more a translational argument and not a text issue. Even is the TR is correct as some on NA committee believed, they felt unanimously that is should be "interpreted it as an ingressive aorist, “supper having been served.”" I also have no commentary that argues any other way. I am sure one exists, I just dont know which one that would be.

The point being made, was 99.5% ...over what ever listed day "ended". I know of none that actually says "ended" (τελως) or some other definitive way of saying "ended".

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Erasmus felt the same way.

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There is said to be around thirty varying editions of the Textus Receptus.

 

I'm not quite following you.

When you say a "common text exists between all variants"....what do you mean by that? An original ancestor? That they all originated from the same "common" textual reading?

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My NA28 shows the original hand has "γινομένου". And the 2nd corrector has "γενομενου". I would have to look at other works to see if there is a spelling variant. The NA tends to standardize spelling. My Tyndale house Greek, which does show spelling "errors" at times, does not show anything here either.

So no, the NA28 does not show that. My Comfort Textual Commentary is at the office....dont have that handy.

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