Particular
Well-Known Member
RightYou mean synergists, not syncretists, right?
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RightYou mean synergists, not syncretists, right?
I concede your point. I do note that there is a point made where baptism is not regenerative, however.No, I know exactly what I am talking about. Here is the article on Baptism from the Westminster Confession:
I've bolded the relevant parts. It is more than just a simple baby dedication.
My solution to the problem is both Dispensationalism and Covenant Theology are man made and dishonest. They don't originate in scripture but borrow from scripture to support their claims. Problem solved. End of story............OK..Here's another one for y'all.
My pastor says that he believes in Progressive Covenantalism. He tried to explain it to me at one point, but it was confusing. What is it? I was raised as a Dispensationalist, so I only understand a few of the differences as they relate to eschatology. But if he is a progressive conveantalist, then what exactly does he believe? And how does this affect his preaching style if at all?
Thought I wouldn't say reformed, there are Reformed Baptist.I concede your point. I do note that there is a point made where baptism is not regenerative, however.
p 148 V. Although it be a great sin to contemn or neglect this ordinance, yet grace and salvation are not so inseparably annexed unto it, as that no person can be regenerated or saved without it, or that all that are baptized are undoubtedly regenerated.
So, for Reformed, the baptism of an infant does not mean the infant is regenerated. But, you are correct in that they seem to teach it as a means of grace.
Slowly read Mathew 24, from the first verse to verse 16 (flee to the mountains). Who is Jesus talking to? Who is Jesus talking about? Where are the disciples? Where is the rapture, look for it? Christians are there there whole time, up until they're told to flee.
It seems your solution is to silently have no opinion.My solution to the problem is both Dispensationalism and Covenant Theology are man made and dishonest. They don't originate in scripture but borrow from scripture to support their claims. Problem solved. End of story............
For the record, Covenental Theology is why many on that side of the Aisle practice Infant Baptism. You know, because somehow the New Covenant isn't really New it's the Old Covenant but with different seals.
1689 Particular Baptist ConfessionThought I wouldn't say reformed, there are Reformed Baptist.
Yes, but are those disciples the Christians who became such AFTER the rapture? That would be my understanding.
I know what I believe to be in line with the historic Church Creeds. And anything that doesn't square with that is highly suspect. Ephesus 431 condemned premillennialism (Dispensationalism in principle) as heresy. And Nicea briefly stated Amillennialism in principle as the correct position in scripture.It seems your solution is to silently have no opinion.
Scripture, however can give us insight. In scripture we see God graciously choosing whom he wills, starting with Adam and Eve. We see God's choice, by grace, from beginning to end. We see God establishing covenants with men.
What we don't see is God declaring and dispensing his means of salvation in different ways at different times. Thus, dispensationalism has no solid footing in scripture.
1689 Particular Baptist Confession
1.Baptism is an ordinance of the New Testament, ordained by Jesus Christ, to be unto the party baptized, a sign of His fellowship with Him, in his death and resurrection; of his being engrafted into him; of remission of sins; and of giving up into God, through Jesus Christ, to live and walk in newness of life.
2.Those who do actually profess repentance towards God, faith in, and obedience to, our Lord Jesus Christ, are the only proper subjects of this ordinance.
3.The outward element to be used in this ordinance is water, wherein the party is to be baptized, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.
4.Immersion, or dipping of the person in water, is necessary to the due administration of this ordinance.
So, for Reformed, the baptism of an infant does not mean the infant is regenerated. But, you are correct in that they seem to teach it as a means of grace.
The "abomination of desolation", which is believed to be the Antichrist, is going to set himself up. The passage says that when this happens, then people are supposed to flee to the mountains and not turn back. The passage says there will be great tribulation but in this particular section it does not say exactly what that tribulation will be.
We know it will be like nothing ever seen before or after that. But still, there will be people saved during the tribulation, so is this message for them? The word of God is for all time, so how do you know that this passage isn't for those who get saved during the tribulation and are now reading their bibles? The Word of God will still be alive and well during the tribulation period. When I read this passage, that's how I see it. Verses 40 and 41 indicate the Lord coming and some people being left behind. I'm not sure how else to interpret those verses. I guess you could look at it from either perspective. We definitely know that He's coming back to take His people to be with Him.
I'm still puzzled as to why people are so opposed to the idea of a pre-trib rapture... If it was true, wouldn't you want that rather than having to go through 7 years of hell? Hey, if God wants me to be around during the tribulation, then I guess He's going to give me the grace to endure it. But if there's a way that I can avoid it, I'd be more than happy to take that route. All that said, if I have to suffer to any extent, it will be for God's glory, and I know that the Lord delights in His children who are persecuted for His sake.
But this persecution and judgment is not coming from man - it's coming from God. That's why I can't see why the Lord would pour out HIS wrath on His own children who are no longer under condemnation. There is a difference between being persecuted for your faith, and then suffering horrible things that God ordained specifically as judgment for the unbelieving world. Could He supernaturally protect us in the midst of it? Absolutely! But it just seems so ridiculous that He would put His own children through all of that when the whole 7 year period is intended for the unbelieving world.
David, it is not foolish. Westminster Covenant Theology's view stands and falls on infant baptism. When the Reformed Baptist movement in the United States started in Carlisle, Pennsylvania* it adopted Westminster Covenant Theology as its default position. This was due mostly to the fact that there was not much contemporary work on Covenant Theology from a Baptist perspective. To be sure, Westminster Covenant Theology is helpful but it does contain some glaring inconsistencies that Baptists have to reject. Thankfully, there has been prolific work done on Baptist Federalism (i.e. Covenant Theology) within the last decade. It is imperative for Reformed/Particular Baptists to state where they differ with their Westminster brethren.That is just foolish. The first dispensationalist, Edward Irving was a Presyterian, his disciple John Nelson Darby was a Irish Anglican, Scofield, whose false bible was a major tool in bring the new teaching to the USA was a Presbyterian. All these were paedo Baptists
It seems your solution is to silently have no opinion.
Scripture, however can give us insight. In scripture we see God graciously choosing whom he wills, starting with Adam and Eve. We see God's choice, by grace, from beginning to end. We see God establishing covenants with men.
What we don't see is God declaring and dispensing his means of salvation in different ways at different times. Thus, dispensationalism has no solid footing in scripture.
Right.Paedobaptists also stray into presumptive regeneration.
agedman, I confess that I am naive to your splitting of hairs in the dispensationalist camp. It may very well be that I land outside of pure covenant theology and dispensational theology. I merely read the Bible and see God choosing and working through covenant with his chosen people.Perhaps it would be wise to not lump historic dispensational teaching into the modern "Darby" dispensation.
The Scriptures do use the term "dispensation" and therefore does have "solid footing."
What "Darby" did was take and modify the teaching to repackage it into something catchy and mass appealing.
Doing so, he also interjected bias that was typical of his time toward the Jews.
However, historic dispensation teaching does NOT declare God dispensing different ways of salvation at different times.
Schofield used this definition of dispensation: "A dispensation is a period of time during which man is tested in respect to his obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God."
There is significant difference between the modern dispensation taught by Darby thinking and that taught by the early church.
It is SO VERY sad that the Chiliastic view of the early church has been disregarded and dismissed because of the Darby persuasion, and by those who use it to dismiss all things dispensational.
The centuries of dispensation teaching (Chilan) in which the early church was grounded upon is the use of Scriptures.
That dispensational view was not only accepted by Christians, but also held by the Jews as consistent with the prophetical teachings.
It is just bad theological arguments to assume all dispensation teaching emerged from Darby.
It is just bad theologically to place some other scheme as superior to what the early church taught.
I know what I believe to be in line with the historic Church Creeds. And anything that doesn't square with that is highly suspect. Ephesus 431 condemned premillennialism (Dispensationalism in principle) as heresy. And Nicea briefly stated Amillennialism in principle as the correct position in scripture.
All are considered cults of Christendom that reject the Ecumenical Creeds.This is really ridiculous.
You are taking the Papal Decree from what was a developing ungodly bunch and making it that which Scripture conforms?
That you even would use such is just astounding!
Every scholar of note does admit that two teachings were dominate in the early church AND the Jewish teaching.
1) the use of dispensation (NOT Darby type)
2) the hope of the messiah (Chilian) establishing an earthly rule.
Even the apostles present this when asking:
6So when they had come together, they asked him, “Lord, will you at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?”7He said to them, “It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority. 8But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.”And even in the remembering table the Lord stated:
17And he took a cup, and when he had given thanks he said, “Take this, and divide it among yourselves. 18For I tell you that from now on I will not drink of the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes.”
And do not believers pray
“Father, hallowed be your name.
Your kingdom come."
And why do they pray such?
"your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven."
God's will in heaven is unchallenged, undisputed, uncontested, un-perverted, and un-delayed.
Such WILL happen on this earth.
Such is that promise given by the prophets and displayed in time by John.
That you would present some authority from the anti-christ in this matter is just beyond ludicrous!