What Did Barnabas See?

Acts 11:22 Then tidings of these things came unto the ears of the church which was in Jerusalem: and they sent forth Barnabas, that he should go as far as Antioch. 23 Who, when he came, and had seen the grace of God, was glad, and exhorted them all, that with purpose of heart they would cleave unto the Lord.

Why now? Why hadn't this grace of God been visible before? Who are "them all?"

Does anyone have any logical and reasonable ideas that can be gleaned from the historical as well as the biblical context?

Luke wrote that statement so he must have been at the place where Barnabas came since he phrased it as he did. Why did he not say he exhorted "us" since he was obviously there? Is the answer to these questions obvious?

What do you think?

 

when he came, and had seen the grace of God, was glad,

Does no one have an idea what Barnabas saw that Luke described as the grace of God in Acts 11?

 

I think you are right about that canadyjd. Since this is at least 10 years after the Jews were given the indwelling Spirit (salvation) the gentiles were then given this gift as well. God had promised many times in the OT to give the Spirit to the Jews but never to gentiles. So the principle of God whereby he gave his Spirit to Jews was by promise while he gave the Spirit to gentiles by the principle of his grace in the absence of a promise to them.

Eph 2:5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us (Jews and gentiles) together with Christ, (by grace ye gentiles are saved)

V 11 ....... that ye being in time past Gentiles
V 12 That at that time ye were without Christ

This is my reason for thinking you are right for believing this grace of God is applied here by Barnabas to gentiles as opposed to Jewish Christians. Again, thank you for that response.