Can We Trust The Holy Bible Today? Part 3

The Inspiration of Scripture

In this part we are looking at the Inspiration of the Holy Bible, The Word of Almighty God to humankind. Inspiration is the supernatural method that God the Holy Spirit used, to “Inspire” into the hearts and minds of the Writers of the Original Autographs of the 66 Books of the Holy Bible, the very Words that God wanted to Communicate to us humans. We shall look at two passages of the New Testament here.

“πασα γραφη θεοπνευστος και ωφελιμος προς διδασκαλιαν προς ελεγχον προς επανορθωσιν προς παιδειαν την εν δικαιοσυνη” (2 Timothy 3:16)

Literally, this reads, “every Scripture God-Inspired and beneficial”, etc. The meaning here is, “every Scripture is God-Inspired and beneficial”. Which is discussed more fully below.

“Every Scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for convincing, for correction of error, and for instruction in right doing” (Weymouth)

“Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness” (Revised Version, 1881)

What does “πασα” mean here? Firstly to note is that this adjective is in the singular number, which has the meaning, “In sing, all the, the whole, the whole of the” (R J Cunliffe, A Lexicon of the Homeric Dialect, p.316); “πασα, every one, (the whole) including all the parts” (Henry Smith, A Complete Greek and English Lexicon for the Poems of Homer, p. 329) This meaning is clear from Romans 8:22, “that the whole creation groans” οτι πασα η κτισις συστεναζει, where it cannot refer to only “parts”, or even “the greater part”, but means “totality, complete”. Then, in Ephesians 5:3, “But let not fornication, and all uncleanness, or greediness, be named among you, as is fitting for saints” πορνεια δε και πασα ακαθαρσια η πλεονεξια μηδε ονομαζεσθω εν υμιν καθως πρεπει αγιοις. Where the meaning can only be, “each and every”, with no exceptions. And, Matthew 8:32, “the whole herd rushed down the steep into the sea, and perished in the waters”, ωρμησεν πασα η αγελη των χοιρων κατα του κρημνου εις την θαλασσαν και απεθανον εν τοις υδασιν”. That is, “every single one of them”.

Though the Revised Version has “every”, yet, the way it is translated gives the meaning that only “portions” of Scripture that are “inspired by God”, and these are “profitable”, etc.

Next we have the noun “γραφη”, which is also in the singular. Taken together with “πασα”, “γραφη πασα”, can only mean “every single Scripture”. Some have argued, that had Paul here been referring to “The Scriptures”, as “The Word of God”, then he would have written “η γραφη”, using the defenite article, “The Scripture”. However, this is not correct, as we have,

“ο προεπηγγειλατο δια των προφητων αυτου εν γραφαις αγιαις” = “which He before promised, through His Prophets in Scriptures Holy” (Romans 1:2). See the article used, “εν ταις γραφαις” (Matthew 21:42; Acts 18:24, etc).

“τουτο πρωτον γινωσκοντες οτι πασα προφητεια γραφης ιδιας επιλυσεως ου γινεται” = “This first knowing, that every prophecy of Scripture, of its own interpretation is not” (2 Peter 1:20)

Here are a couple of examples, where the definite article is not used in the Greek, where the reference is clearly to “the whole of Scripture”, not just “a portion”, as expressed in the RV.

To what does Paul refer by “γραφη”? In the previous verse, Paul tells Timothy, “and that from a babe you know the Holy Scriptures (τα ιερα γραμματα), the ones being able to make you wise to salvation through belief in Christ Jesus”. This no doubt refers to the entire Hebrew Old Testament Canon of 24 Books (same as 22 or 39, just arranged different). Which of course shows that in the next verse, “γραφη” can only refer to the very same Books that Paul mentions in verse 15. “τα ιερα γραμματα”, is used by both Philo of Alexandria, and the Jewish historian, Josephus, both 1st centruy A.D., to refer to the Jewish Scriptures.

In First Corinthains 15, Paul says;

“For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures” (15:3-4)

While it is possible that for the first part “Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures”, can be a reference to Isaiah 53:5-6. There is no reference to Jesus Christ Rising from the Dead on the third day, anywhere in the Old Testament. There is, however, a very interesting verse in Luke, spoken by the Lord Jesus, “ He also said to them, “This is what is written: The Messiah would suffer and rise from the dead the third day” (24:46). There is no OT reference for this. It is clear from the evidence that we have, that the words in 1 Corinthians 15, “And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures”, can only be referring to the Accounts in the Gospels that we have. Paul wrote both his Letters to the Church at Corinth, between A.D. 55-57. For the Gospel of Mark, “The subscriptions of many manuscripts, both unical and cursive, assign it [Mark] to 10 or l2 years after Ascension” (James Hastings, A Dictionary of the Bible, vol III, p. 261).This would make the Ascension of Jesus Christ about 30 or 33 A.D., and the Gospel of Mark being written between 40-45 A.D. Henry Thiessen, in his Introduction to the New Testament, says, “We, therefore, date the Greek Matthew about A.D. 50” (page 137). it is clear from 1 Corinthains 15:4, that at least one of the Gospels was used at the time of writing this Letter. Paul here refers to this Gospel, as “Sctipture” (τας γραφας).

Again we read in Paul, “For the Scripture says, “You shall not muzzle an ox when it treads out the grain,” and, “The laborer deserves his wages.” (1 Timothy 5:18) => “Do not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain” (Deuteronomy 25:4). “Stay at the same house, eating and drinking whatever you are offered. For the worker is worthy of his wages. Do not move around from house to house” (Luke 10:7). Here Paul calls The Gospel of Luke “Scripture”, in the same sense as The Book of Deuteronomy.

It is very clear from this, that, when Paul says in 2 Timothy 3:16, “πασα γραφη θεοπνευστος”, that he also includes Books of the New Testamnent, and not just the Old.

We also have Peter in his 2nd Letter, says, “Also, regard the patience of our Lord as an opportunity for salvation, just as our dear brother Paul has written to you according to the wisdom given to him.He speaks about these things in all his letters in which there are some matters that are hard to understand. The untaught and unstable twist them to their own destruction, as they also do with the rest of the Scriptures” (3:15-16)

Again, we see the writings of the Apostle Paul, in the New Testament, that Peter equates with “The rest of Scriptures” (τὰς λοιπὰς γραφὰς), which no doubt refers to the Old Testament Canon, but can also inlude other Books in the New Testament, besides Paul.

The Greek word “θεοπνευστος”, is from “Θεός and πνέω”. The verb “πνέω” is used for “to breathe or inspire into a person” (R J Cunliffe, p.333). Which is exactly what Paul here means, that God the Holy Spirit, “inspired into” the writers of the Holy Bible, so that the Words that they wrote, were the very words given to them by the Holy Spirit.

This brings us to the next important passage, for the Divine Inspiration of Scripture.

“First of all, you should know this: No prophecy of Scripture comes from one’s own interpretation, because no prophecy ever came by the will of man; instead, men spoke from God as they were moved by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:20-21)

“ἀλλὰ ὑπὸ πνεύματος ἁγίου φερόμενοι ἐλάλησαν ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἄνθρωποι”, “but by the Holy Spirit, being moved spoke the holy men from God”

I am of the opinion, that the Holy Spirit actually dictated the Words that He wanted written down, and the writers of the Books of the Holy Bible, were instruments for Him. Though The Lord did use the personal “style” of each human writer, nonetheless, what they wrote were His Words, and not, parttly God's, and partly men. This form of communicating the Message from the Lord, to us humans, is very clear from examples in The Old Testament. When the Prophet Jeremiah complained to the Lord that he was too young to speak on His behalf, the Lord said to him, “And whatever I command you, you shall speak” (1:7), and “Then the Lord put forth His hand and touched my mouth, and the Lord said to me: 'Behold, I have put My words in your mouth'” (v.9). In Numbers 22:38 we read, “And Balaam said to Balak, “Look, I have come to you! Now, have I any power at all to say anything? The word that God puts in my mouth, that I must speak.”. And Deuteronomy 18:18, “I will raise up for them a Prophet like you from among their brethren, and will put My words in His mouth, and He shall speak to them all that I command Him”, etc. If the Lord did this with the “oral Word of God”, why does it seem unlikely to some, that God would not do the same for the “written Word”? I can see no Biblical objection to this. In fact, what is seen from 2 Timothy 3:16, and 1 Peter 1:21, shows that God did “dictate” His Words for humans to write down.

Verbal plenary inerrancy means that one believes all of the Bible is inspired down to the very words of Scripture. The belief in non-verbal plenary inerrancy would mean that one believes all the Bible is inspired, but only as to its concepts—not all the words—meaning that it might contain historical errors.

 

This cannot be right as it would make the words of humans equal to the Holy Bible.

Some Pentecostals believe that

 

Good point, very much a possibility.

 

I quoted Luke 24:46 in connection with 1Corinthains 15:4, where Paul says, "And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures”. Paul's words here as "Scripture", is not found anywhere in the OT, so these words must refer to the Gospel of Mark, or one of the others. Jesus' words in Luke 24:46 says “This is what is written: The Messiah would suffer and rise from the dead the third day”, which speaks of His Rising from the dead on the thrid day, is said to have been "written", which is the usual term for an OT reference. My point being, that this "quote" of Jesus is not found anywhere in the OT, speaking of "the third day".

Hope this clarifies what I said in the OP.