Featured Most accurate translations

Yes. I was talking about all of the above. Variants, Greek Manuscripts (papyri, majuscules and minuscules). Only in theory is a 4th or 5th century manuscript more valuable (in text). Reality is many, many 6th to 15th century manuscripts are more accurate than the papyri. The earlier we go back the few really old ones disagree with each other almost all of the time. Later manuscripts are much more in agreement about the original text.

For instance, codex Sinaiticus almost always looses in a head to head comparison with a "late minuscule" manuscript.
The Text of the Gospels: Hand to Hand Combat: GA 1690 versus Codex Sinaiticus in John 3:22-36

 

NASB
He 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been revealed to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

Are English readers numb? Who is going to believe that the appearance of Jesus on this earth as a physical person of the seed of Abraham (see Heb 2) consummated the ages? To believe this is to assume many things that are not true, like there are not more ages to come.
Ephesians 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

The NASB is telling a big fat lie in this verse and it affects many truths in the scriptures.

 

No. The Greek, the KJV translates as "world" τω αιωνων is in the plural, the NASB correely translates as "ages." in Hebrews 9:26. I personally prefer the KJV over the NASB. But I am also aware of these issues.

 

Hebrews 9:26, NKJV, "He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself."
Hebrews 9:26, "For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself." The use of "worlds" would have been better.
Hebrews 1:2, "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; . . ." Meaning of couse the "ages."

 

Here is a link for a review of 20 translations of the Bible for accuracy.
http://kukis.org/Eng_trans/Bible_chart.pdf

 

Is it your teaching other people on this forum that the translations that properly translates the word “aion,” singular,
and the translations that makes the word aion plural, are conveying the same truth? If your answer is yes then you stand in one of two positions; either you are deceived and don’t know any better, or you do know better and you are deceiving others on purpose.

In Hebrews 1: 1-3 we are told the maker of the ages, plural, came and spoke to the Hebrews, of whom he was one, in the last days of the age in which he appeared. In Hebrews 9:26 God says his sacrifice on the cross brought that age to an end. The purpose of the sacrifice was to put away sin so men can be saved, not to consummate the ages. The Hebrew people were not to practice the ceremonial law after that because they were figures that were fulfilled in Christ. The real is far better.

You are taking the glory away from our Lord Jesus Christ by your cavalier attitude towards the word of God and your teaching others to do likewise. You should think about what you are doing. There are more ages after this one. Jesus did not consummate the ages at his first coming like you and the NASB affirms.

 

Not what I said.

 

Perhaps you should practice what you preach and think about what you are doing.

Human, non-scriptural KJV-only reasoning and opinions would undermine and diminish the authority of the preserved original-language words of Scripture given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles. KJV-only reasoning partially dependent upon the use of fallacies such as begging the question, the fallacy of affirming the consequence, and the fallacy of false dilemma would incorrectly attempt to bind the word of God to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of doctrinally-unsound Church of England critics in 1611.

 

[QUOTE="Conan, post: 2767591, member: 15211] Only in theory is a 4th or 5th century manuscript more valuable (in text). Reality is many, many 6th to 15th century manuscripts are more accurate than the papyri. The earlier we go back the few really old ones disagree with each other almost all of the time.
There isn't perfect agreement; sure. But what about P 4 having over 90% agreement with not only P75 but B? What about P75 having 92% agreement with B in John and 94% agreement in Luke?
B is dated in the 4th century. P4 is dated in the late second to early 3rd century. P75 is dated about 200.

Certainly the bulk of material is Byzantine from the 6th century on and it grows even more in overwhelming numbers as the centuries pass.

 

Are you afraid to deal with the issue I raised? I said the NASB tells a huge lie in Heb 9:26. It says that the appearing of Jesus Christ at his first coming to speak to the Hebrews in person was, past tense, the completion of the ages.The people who translated the NASB had to know this was an error because the ministry of Jesus Christ was entirely under the operative principle of Divine dealing with the Hebrews of Mosaic Law. Since his resurrection the operative principle of Divine dealing with both Hebrews and gentiles has been the principle of grace. He can deal with mankind that way now because he put sin away by the sacrifice of himself. The NASB translators can track history for 2000 years since Jesus Christ ended the law by fulfilling it by his death and resurrection.

The NASB is desperately wrong and misleading and so are the men and women who get on here and try to persuade others that there is no difference in what the translations teaches. They are perpetuating the lie the NASB is presenting in Heb 9:26, especially so after they are made aware of it.

Do you have anything to offer on this concern?

Romans 10:4
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

Galatians 4:4
But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

Jesus thought there is an Aion = age to come after the one he was living in.

Matthew 12:32
And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.

Paul thought there were ages to come after this one where God’s grace is highlighted.

Ephesians 1:19-23
19 And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power,
20 Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places,
21 Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:
22 And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church,
23 Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in

Ephesians 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

Everyone in the scriptures thinks there is more than one age to come and most everyone on this forum thinks the NASB has it right when it says the ages have been completed when Jesus came the first time.

What say ye? Are you insisting that all translations are teaching the same doctrines of God?

 

Are you suggesting that you are afraid to deal with the sound issues raised concerning your human KJV-only reasoning?

You are making allegations based on your own erroneous reasoning as you assume the renderings of the KJV to be the standard based on your use of fallacies such as begging the question. You start with incorrect assumptions and jump to wrong conclusions.

 

FOCUS: Read this verse and tell me if you are willing to teach that it is an accurate doctrinal statement concerning the consummation of the ages when Jesus Christ came to minister to the Hebrews under the Law of Moses and bring it to an end as the operative principle of Divine dealing by fulfilling the figures and prophetic types of that law.

NASB
Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been revealed to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. Heb 9:26

You do not need an opinion about the KJV to answer this question.

The NASB is conflicted concerning the ages.

NASB
so that in the ages to come He might show the boundless riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.Eph 2:7

They have one author saying to the Hebrews that the ages were completed when Jesus came the first time and another author saying to the Ephesians thatthere are ages to come.

This NASB is doing commentary, not translation of God's holy words. Will you agree with that statement?

 

Excellent point.
I don't think p4 has a lot of text. But true, p75 and B have an unprecedented high agreement for alexandrian witnesses. Although certainly not 90%+. 79% perhaps? I can't recall the exact percentage. Now what about the percentage of p75, B(4th), C(5th), D(5th), A(5th), W(4th or 5th) and codex Sinaiticus(4th)?

You do have an high degree of agreement between p75 and B(79%?), the next would be B and Sinaiticus 70% and then down hill from there.

Keep in mind the majority of all manuscripts have 85%-95% agreements.

 

P4 has about 96 verses from Luke's Gospel. P75 and B agree over 90% of the time. Juan Hernandez, Jr. in his article The Early Text Of Luke is my source.

 

The MOST blessed and used translation of the Holy Bible used by God is the King James Version.

No other even comes close

 

I think the Vulgate has that distinction.

 

The Latin Vulgate never reached the masses as the KJV has done, and was mainly used by the church, and some of those who could read the language.

 

Heb 9:26... συντέλεια των αιώνων —The last two words are plural.