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Brother @Conan download, if you can F35GNT.PDF and "The Identity of the New Testament Text IV" PDF which explains the reasons the text choices.

 

Actually not all. I am not KJV only. The issue is when one believes the Bible one uses to be the very word of God. And another's Bible says differently, the other Bible is wrong. God's word is inerrant. Right? Now I have been a believer since 1962, that is over 50 years. I by choice now use the KJV. But I am not KJV only. As a new Christian 1 John 5:7 bothered me. So what is actually God's word is very important to me. The modern Bibles have 1 John 5:7 right. But sad to say most of the other references the modern Bibles are very wrong.

 

Your years of personal study explains your presented views as you do. I have been looking at this issue over 50 years. Beginning with my Nestles Greek New Testament. And I claim no expertise.

 

His textual observations are parroting those of the Kjvo

 

He doesn't think so.

 

True, but still does not change the truth that he is parroting them

 

Well, do you have two source quotes? One from them and one from him?

 

what are you on about? the verses that I referred to, that are in the KJV, do have the better textual evidence. People get too hung up on the "Greek manuscript evidence", which is the work of copyists, who are known to have altered what they read, in their copies. In fact, there were two Arians involved in copying during the time of the Codices Saniticus and Vatanicus!

 

it depends on how you look at the evidence. I am not too impressed with the Greek manuscript evidence, as I believe the the quotes of the Bible found in the Church Fathers, are of much more value.

 

WRONG! The Greek grammar of the context says that the words in verse 7, are part of what John wrote!

 

We are actually dealing two issues. Texts and transactions.

 

All so called church fathers are post Apostolic. Only the new testament documents have any real Apostolic authority.

 

How come that same grammar is used twice with the added text and once without the added text, so it proves nothing as you suppose. Post the Greek text both with and without to make your case.

 

Thank you! I have it in print somewhere. Just have to find the right box.

The Identity of the New Testament Text IV Paperback – October 7, 2014
by Wilbur N. Pickering PhD (Author

https://www.amazon.com/Identity-New...efix=Idenety+of+the+new,stripbooks,287&sr=1-2

 

The Holy Trinity in 1 John 5:7

 

The Text of the Gospels: First John 5:7 and Greek Manuscripts

 

According to an article by Paul Foster Text Of The NT In The Apostolic Fathers he concludes with the following :
"The reality is that at this time the form of the text in the second century is a scholarly reconstruction based on firm scientific principles, but not yet corroborated to any large degree by concrete manuscript support. The writings of the Apostolic Fathers get us no closer to reconstructing that text than the actual extant manuscripts of the third and fourth centuries. In fact, the complications surrounding NT citations in the writings of the Apostolic Fathers may in fact confuse rather than clarify this endeavour."

 

Formal equivalence and paraphrase arent much different and are uselesd

 

What? You are confused.

 

1 John 5:7-8,
οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ο λογος και το αγιον πνευμα και ουτοι οι τρεις εν εισι και τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τη γη το πνευμα και το υδωρ και το αιμα και οι τρεις το εν εισι

Versus,

οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες το πνευμα και το υδωρ και το αιμα και οι τρεις το εν εισι

The added phrase, εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ο λογος και το αγιον πνευμα και ουτοι οι τρεις εν εισι και τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τη γη, doesn't correct the grammar that is said to be wrong, τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες