Featured Most accurate translations

That is not completely true. Even so KJV pnlyism is helping to destroy valid KJV acceptance.

 

One does not need manuscripts to determine that ages, plural, is a wrong translation in the context of Hebrews 9 where the point is made that the first coming of Jesus Christ to the earth was to fulfill the ceremonial types and figures that was being practiced by the Hebrews for over 1500 years. Following is a truth about the Law of Moses and what it was intended to do. You will notice that it most certainly was not to consummate the ages but to introduce a new and better operative principle of divine dealing with the Hebrews, and by extension the gentiles. Check this passage and see if you have eyes to perceive this.

The Issue is faith in what God says.

Gal 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

ABRAHAM THE FATHER OF ISRAEL BELIEVED GOD AND WAS JUSTIFIED BECAUSE OF IT LONG BEFORE THE LAW OF MOSES BECAME THE OPERATIVE PRINCIPLE OF GOD DEALING WITH THEM

7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.
8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen (THE NATIONS) through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.
9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.

10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
12 And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them.

13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
14 That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.

THE PROMISE OF THE INDWELLING SPIRIT IS THE BLESSING OF ABRAHAM AND ALSO THE DEFINITION OF SALVATION, NEVER ACCOMPLISHED UNDER THE LAW OF MOSES

15 Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man's covenant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto.
16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after (THE GIVING OF THE ABRAHAMIC COVENANT), cannot disannul, (IT CANNOT DISANNUL THE ABRAHAMIC COVENANT WHERE THE PROMISE OF SALVATION WAS MADE) that it should make the promise of none effect.
18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise (BECAUSE IT IS OF WORKS): but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added (A TEMPORARY ADDENDUM TO THE ABRAHAMIC COVENANT ) because of transgressions, (HOW LONG) till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
20 Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.

21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.(THE PROMISE HAS BEEN IDENTIFIED AS SALVATION, WHICH IS THE INDWELLING SPIRIT OF JESUS CHRIST - SEE VERSE 14 - SEE V 2 AND V 5.


23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.(THE LAW WAS BROUGHT TO AN END WITH THE CRUCIFIXION OF CHRIST AND A NEW DIVINE PRINCIPLE OF DIVINE DEALING WAS INTRODUCED TO ISRAEL AT HIS RESURRECTION.

26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. (THERE ARE NO CHILDREN OF GOD WITHOUT THE NEW BIRTH, WHICH IS RECEIVING THE SPIRIT OF GOD BY FAITH)

27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

GAL 4:4 SAYS THIS ABOUT THE END OF THE TIME OF THE LAW, WHICH IS AN AGE, BUT NOT THE LAST AGE.

Ga 4: 1Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all;
2 But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father.
3 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we (Jews) might receive the adoption of sons.
6 And because ye (gentiles) are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.
7 Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.

These passages serve to debunk your teaching that Jesus consummated the ages at his first appearing.

He 9:26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Why can't you follow the logic of a biblical argument and agree these verses that claims the first coming of Christ was at the consummation of the ages are in error?

 

You fail to display faith in what God actually said to the apostles and NT prophets in the Greek New Testament. You ignore the number of the Greek noun in the Textus Receptus from which the KJV is translated.

You seem to be advocating faith in human KJV-only opinions instead of faith in what God said to the apostles and prophets.

 

Well, you are wrong about that. I demonstrated that the first word world in Hebrews chapter 9 verse 26 was the word cosmos and that Word in the Greek means the planet. Then I demonstrated that the second word world is the Greek word aion which means age, or a time period wherein God designs to accomplish certain things in his providence. The time of Israel under the law is one of those ages in which God dealt with the Hebrews.it was this age and this operative principle of dealing with them that is brought to an end with the sacrifice on the cross of Jesus Christ, not the end of all ages like the popular bibles at the end of this current age declares where grace has been the operative principle of divine dealing. I clearly presented that truth from Galatians 3 & 4.

It was not under the operative principle of the Law of Moses that gentiles like you and me were brought into favor with God but it was under the principle that replaced the Law, which is the grace of God.

You greatly err by defending translations that confuses the power and purpose of the cross of Jesus Christ and the real truth that he has now established a time period where he can give salvation to whomsoever will receive it because he took sin away by his sacrifice according to Hebrews 9.

I offered scriptural reasoning from the KJV and a right division of truth. Get the words of God wrong and it effects what you believe and preach. Words matter.

Why don’t you correct me the same way using your translation?

 

You meant "and it affects what you believe and preach." After all, words matter.

Most English translations have "at the end of the ages."

EHV and Mounce have: at the climax of the ages
NASB and Net have : at the consummation of the ages
REB has : at the climax of history
MLB and Goodspeed have : at the close of the ages
NIV has : at the culmination of the ages

Apparently you are wrong.

 

Please! Context, history, experience and the gospel of Christ are just a few of the proofs that the first coming of Jesus Christ did not bring the ages to a climax as you and your translations claim. Surely you are not teaching that nothing changed for the Hebrews after Jesus fulfilled the ceremonial types and figures of the Law and they, the Hebrews, are still compelled to observe that law even after Jesus rose from the dead? Are you?

2 Corinthians 3:6-9
6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.
7 But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:
8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?
9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.

 

HO! Logos1560 and RipponRedeaux,

I posted questions for you men. Ignoring them is not a proper response.

 

Are you saying that your ignoring questions asked you is not a proper response? You do not practice what you preach. You also attempt in effect to put words in the mouths of others that they have not stated.

Your questions may be invalid, being based on KJV-only assumptions that you have not proven to be true; therefore, they would not deserve to be answered. Your questions may also involve misunderstanding and misrepresentation of what you incorrectly assume others supposedly believe. Questions do not determine nor establish truth. Questions do not prove your KJV-only reasoning to be true. Questions can also be answered by questions.

You start with unproven and non-true KJV-only premises or assumptions, and then you jump to wrong conclusions based on them. You do not answer nor refute the points that counter your human KJV-only reasoning. As you quoted, you ignore and avoid the important and essential matter of the number [singular/plural] of the Greek noun in the Textus Receptus and in the preserved Greek NT manuscripts.

 

Don't hold your breath. I've never seen Logos answer a question! Ever. He always claims the question is "invalid".

 

What are the questions not being answered?

 

Focus. This is not about me.

Focus. What you are saying is not true. I am not basing my arguments on KJV assumptions, I am basing them on the English texts and the context. I have quoted some modern versions that declares the first appearing of Christ to the Hebrews was a consummation or a completion of the ages that the author said were created by the Son of God (He 1:2). He declared in that context that he spoke in the last days and we learn from other verses and epistles the he spoke in the last days of one of those ages. You don’t seem to know about this so I will give you a verse for example.

Galatians 4:4
But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

Learn what the fullness of THE time (singular) means. (Rom 10:4 - Christ is the end of the law to everyone that believeth). See, a new and different principle in the unfolding drama of redemption after the resurrection. (Ga 3:25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.)

The author of Galatians did not say Christ came under the law of Moses "in the fullness of the times," plural. The fullness of times is yet in the future.

Ephesians 1:10
That in the dispensation of the fulness of times (plural) he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

The context of Hebrews 9 is not the consummation of all the ages God created by Jesus Christ but the completion of the one age of the law of Moses, which the Hebrews had labored under in their struggle with sin while remaining condemned by the law. All of the ceremonial law under Moses pointed to Jesus Christ. They were shadows and figures but he was the real thing. He ended the law of Moses for the Hebrews. That is the point, not that he ended the ages as the NASB and other popular English translations says.

Can't you understand the following?

Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.

The verses above says there is a time frame in which he is dealing differently with the Hebrews after the days of the law and after his one offering for sin.

I have made no reference to what people believe. My comments have been about the texts of the MVs and my questions have involved why the most popular versions say the ages were completed with the first appearing on earth of the Son of God, Jesus Christ, when it is demonstrably not true?

This is a false charge because I have not assumed anything. I have stated facts and then proven them. The modern versions that declares the ages were complete at the first appearing of Jesus Christ to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself in Hebrews 9:26 also says there are other ages after this in various other passages, some of which I have pointed out. This is not about comparing the KJV with other translations, it is about comparing those other translations with themselves.

The words of God are very precise. The philosophy of the present age concerning translations is an end times apostasy, I believe.

Please consider these things carefully. Changing your mind is not the worse thing you can do.

 

You must follow any thread you choose to comment on to make relevant responses.

 

The word of God is inerrant. We rely on our English translation we use to be accurate in that regard.
I use the KJV. I also make use of other translations in studing the word.