Featured Matthew Henry on 1 John 5:7

maybe you can't read English!

THIS is what I wrote, "Both Tertullian and Cyprian wrote in the Old Latin from"

can you see that I have already said that "Tertullian and Cyprian WROTE in the Old Latin from"

BUT, both Tertullian and Cyprian were educated in GREEK. Tertullain translated the GREEK into Latin for himself. As Cyprian knew Greek, there can be no doubt that he had a Greek NT, as Tertullian did. Even the later Latin Church fathers, like Jerome, Ambrose and Augustine, knew Greek and used the Greek NT.

so what you say is nonsense!

 

and my point is, not that any translation is "Inspired", as the Original Autographs are, but at this early date, both Tertullian and Cyprian, who read Greek, and no doubt had the First Letter of John in Greek, actually quoted verse 7 as I have shown, which means that at this time the words were in the Greek Epistle. It is like quoting from the KJV, which is English, this does not make the translation unrealible

I am not using 1 John 5:7 to "prove" the Trinity, but showing that, like 1 Timothy 3:16, which is the clearest verse of Jesus Christ as the God-Man, has been corrupted, though in the Original Autographs.

 

I only believe that the Original Autographs of the 66 Books of the Holy Bible are θεόπνευστος. NO translation, not even the LXX, has any Divine Inspiration by the Holy Spirit.

What I am saying about Tertullain and Cyprian is this. They both read "οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ο λογος και το αγιον πνευμα και ουτοι οι τρεις εν εισιν", in their Greek and Latin First Letter of John, from which they quote.

You say, "But then you talk about Tertullian and Cyprian citing 1 John 5:7 in opposition to the originals". WHAT ORIGINALS? We have ZERO riginals of ANY of the 66 Books of the Bible! ALL manuscripts are COPIES of COPIES. The OLDEST Greek manuscript for this verse in 1 John 5, is the FOURTH century Codex Siniaticus, which is over a HUNDRED years AFTER Tertullian and Cyprian!

The words in 1 John 5:7 are indeed not any any EXISTING Greek manuscript before the 14th or 15th century, but the fact that both Tertullian and Cyprian quote the words from the Greek, shows that it was in their time!

 

to me he is!

 

judging by what you post on here, you are mostly WRONG!

 

The Greek evidence shows beyond any doubt to anyone who knows Greek, that the words are part of the Original. So Wallace is WRONG!

 

I challenge you, Wallace, or anyone else to prove that this is wrong

The Holy Trinity in 1 John 5:7

 

then try to disprove what I have shown from the Greek grammar. Even Dr A T Roberston who was a far greater Greek scholar than Wallace, get things wrong! We are fallible humans after all!

 

how many times do I need to address this with you? BOTH Tertullian and Cyprian read Greek and Latin, and they quote the very verse in their works. Are they lying?