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Featured Eliminating vague, arcane and obscure Words

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Jun 20, 2023.

  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Many English translations have added words to the inspired text.

    Here is how the NIV renders the 1 John 2:2
    He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

    However, some English translations leave the message to be inferred.

    Here is how the ASV renders the verse:
    and he is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world.

    Thus the addition should be in italics in a version used for study, but the addition does not seem to alter the message.

    Several translations use "atoning sacrifice" instead of "propitiation" but both choices use words which are outside the vocabulary of most lost readers. A much better translation would be "means of salvation."
     
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  2. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Regarding translations that have the sins of :
    CSB, CEB, ESV, LEB, NASB, NCB, NCV, NLT and NRSV. The NIV is in good company.
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    LOL, how many put the addition in italics.
    And again with the two wrongs make a right claim.
     
  4. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    None of the translations I listed (and there are more) put an italics in that verse. The use of italics is an absurd practice. In any given passage to be consistent, one would have to place italics for nearly every other word. It would be a myopic nightmare.

    Your second sentence does not make any sense.
     
  5. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    So Van is now a fan of the Good News Translation. That's his go-to Bible version now.

    Most readers of the New Testament understand the meaning of atoning sacrifice.
     
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    It seems Mr. Rippon is clueless as to the meanings of "hilasmos" which in this usage is "means of salvation."
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    AMPC
    And He [that same Jesus Himself] is the propitiation (the atoning sacrifice) for our sins, and not for ours alone but also for [the sins of] the whole world.

    BRG
    And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for our’s only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    GNV
    And he is the reconciliation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    JUB
    and he is the reconciliation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    AKJV
    and he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    LEB
    and he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    NASB
    and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

    WYC
    and he is the forgiveness for our sins; and not only for our sins [and he is helping for our sins; soothly not only for ours], but also for the sins of all the world.

    Claiming that the LEB and NASB did not in some manner identify the addition makes no sense. :)
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Two wrongs do not make a right.

    If a person does something wrong, they cannot make it right by pointing out another wrong by someone else.

    Thing about the guy caught in a lie saying it is fine because everyone lies.

    If the NIV makes a poor or corrupt translation choice, it is not corrected by saying other translations make that same bogus choice. Two wrongs do not make a right.
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    1 John 4:10
    In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

    Here the meaning can be unencrypted using the plain language meaning for "hilasmos:"

    In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the means of salvation on account of our sins.
     
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What does "atonement" mean? It means going from a separated state, two entities, to a united state, i.e. one state, or at one ment. Thus the actual word refers to God transferring an individual into Christ's spiritual body where they undergo the washing of regeneration, and arise a new spiritually alive creation, together with Christ.

    However, that is not at all what many people who use this ill defined word mean. They conflate providing the means of salvation with providing individual salvation for those chosen.
     
  11. Piper

    Piper Active Member
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    ilasmos is not the "Means of salvation" Maybe "means of forgiveness."

    2434 hilasmós – properly, propitiation; an offering to appease (satisfy) an angry, offended party. 2434 (hilasmós) is only used twice (1 Jn 2:2, 4:10) – both times of Christ's atoning blood that appeases God's wrath, on all confessed sin. By the sacrifice of Himself, Jesus Christ provided the ultimate 2434 /hilasmós ("propitiation").

    Not one lexicon gives the meaning "Means of salvation."

    If you don't know the difference between salvation and forgiveness, you, my friend need to go back to kindergarten theologically.
     
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  12. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Since the majority of English Bible translations do not have your particular wording --- you are most likely in the wrong. You always show a hubristic attitude Van. This "two wrongs don't a right" is one of your favorite expressions. The odds are against you. You have to demonstrate that you are in the right Van. And that is an impossibility. Face it Van.

    You have not proven that the NIV, along with the vast majority of other English translations are wrong when they do not have your particular wording. And Van, you certainly are in the wrong when you choose to use the word 'corrupt' with regard to a rendering that isn't your cup o' tea.
     
  13. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Van has made seven posts so far on this thread. In all of them he has not shown any "vague, arcane and obscure words" in English Bible translations. An OP is like a thesis statement. Your thesis is not in evidence in this thread. Do better Van.
     
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  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Once again, this poster addresses me and not the topic.

    Some translations use italics or other designations to indicate words or phrases added for clarity. They are the best ones to use for study of God's word.

    No one I know of agrees that two wrongs do make a right! :)

    The NIV is not wrong for not having my particular wording, its mistranslations are wrong because they mistranslate God's word.

    Agenda driven mistranslations are poor choices that corrupt the text by alteration.
     
  15. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Your expression is quite frankly dumb. When numerous translations do not have your spin you should acknowledge that it is rather conceivable that you are W-R-O-N-G.
     
  16. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    The NIV and most other translations are in all likelihood correct --and your unstudied interpretive gloss is dead wrong.

    Your interpretive renderings are certainly agenda-driven. It is as plain as the nose on your face.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another post addressing me because the poster has apparently no bible study findings of vague, arcane and obscure words.
     
  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You can deny the obvious until the cows come home, but if the means to appease [God] an offended party does not provide the means of salvation from God imposing the punitive consequences of our sins, I will have another cup of coffee.

    1 John 2:2 NASB
    and He Himself is the [fn]propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
    __________________
    Footnote: i. e. "means of reconciliation with God by atoning for sins, or sin offering.

    Thus the NASB says "hilasmos" refers to the "means of reconciliation" which of course refers to the means of salvation from the imposition of God's punitive consequences for our sins.
     
    #18 Van, Jun 22, 2023
    Last edited: Jun 22, 2023
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What is propitiation? A means of appeasement or a means of reconciliation, or a means of forgiveness, or a means of salvation, or a means of placating?

    The result is the same, when the mechanism is used, the individual goes from God having something against the individual, to God having nothing against the individual. When God transfers individuals into Christ's spiritual body, they undergo the circumcision of Christ, where what God has against the individual is removed, delivering them from the wrath of God, thus saving them.
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Translating "rhema" as declaration(s), remark(s) or matter(s) eliminates the need to use the same English term "word" for both rhema and logos. By the careful use of synonyms, transparency is enhanced. If the choice of declaration is used for an utterance of God and remark for an utterance of people, transparency seems enhanced.

    Matthew 4:4
    But He answered and said, “It is written, ‘MAN SHALL NOT LIVE ON BREAD ALONE, BUT ON EVERY DECLARATION THAT PROCEEDS OUT OF THE MOUTH OF GOD.'”

    Matthew 12:36
    “But I tell you that for every careless remark that people utter, they shall give an accounting for it in the day of judgment.

    Matthew 26:75
    And Peter remembered the declaration which Jesus had said, “Before a rooster crows, you will deny Me three times.” And he went out and wept bitterly.

    There are a few examples where the general rule does not work well, for example when an Apostle is presenting the gospel, his speech is better rendered declaration than remark.
     
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