For Calvinism to exist as a theology, scripture alone will not support it.
The Word of God is Saturated with the Perfect Accomplishment of God's Eternal Plan of Salvation, through the Sacrificial Suffering of His Son, in the Eternal Doctrines of Grace, from Genesis 1:1 to Revelation 22:21.
Do you allow God to Add Words in His Bible to Explain what He is Saying in a verse, by using the rest of the Bible, comparing Scripture with Scripture, and Spiritual things with Spiritual, or do you believe what you think is equal to the Truth of God, already?
Romans 8:1
1 "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus,
who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
2 "For the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus hath Made me Free from the Law of sin and death.
3 "For what the Law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh,
God Sending His Own Son in the Likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, Condemned sin in the flesh:
4 "That the Righteousness of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
5 "For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh;
but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
6 "For to be carnally minded is death; but to be Spiritually Minded is Life and Peace.
7 "Because the carnal mind is Enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8 "So then they that are in the flesh cannot Please God."
1 John 2:2
Jesus is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of those for whom Jesus died in the whole world.
Are the definitions you are using for the words
"our" and
"the whole world" just some things off the top of your head
that you are assuming, or can they be supported by the Word of God?
What definitions do you give to those words?
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that ALL those for whom Jesus died should come to repentance.
Are the definitions you are using for the words
"us-ward" and
"perish" just some things off the top of your head
that you are assuming, or can they be supported by the Word of God?
What definitions do you give to those words?
1 Timothy 2:1-4
I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men;
For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.
For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior;
Who will have ALL men, those for whom Jesus died, to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
Are the definitions you are using for the words
"all men" and
"to be saved" just some things off the top of your head
that you are assuming, or can they be supported by the Word of God?
What definitions do you give to those words?
2 Corinthians 5:19,20
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world of those for whom Jesus died unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you, those for whom Jesus died, in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
Are the definitions you are using for the words
"the world" and
"them" just some things off the top of your head
that you are assuming, or can they be supported by the Word of God?
What definitions do you give to those words?
Acts 17:30
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth ALL men, those for whom Jesus died, every where to repent:
Don't know how this verse could be a problem for anyone who has not been blessed to understand what a sinner is.
A sinner is what they are and this verse is what it is and means what it says and says what it means.
You must, most of you, be acquainted with the general method in which our older Calvinistic friends deal with this text. "All men," say they, —"that is, some men": as if the Holy Ghost could not have said "some men" if he had meant some men. "All men," say they; "that is, some of all sorts of men": as if the Lord could not have said "all sorts of men" if he had meant that.
What did God say, to express what He Meant by
"all men"?
The Holy Ghost by the apostle has written "all men," and unquestionably he means all men.
Yes, he most certainly did and that is not all The Holy Spirit Wrote with regard to
"all men" in the immediate context.
My love of consistency with my own doctrinal views is not great enough to allow me knowingly to alter a single text of Scripture. I have great respect for orthodoxy, but my reverence for inspiration is far greater.
Then, it should follow that he nor anyone else should "knowingly to alter a single text of Scripture", so why did he?
God forbid that I should cut or shape, even in the least degree, any divine expression. So runs the text, and so we must read it, "God our Saviour; who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."
So runs the text, and so we must read it,
"God our Saviour; who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."