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Divine Justice

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
@DaveXR650 and I ventured into this topic because @DaveXR650 indicated that God punished the Jesus (the Just, the Righteous) in order to satisfy divine judgment.
Yes. Here is a good way to explain it. And it requires several steps.
First, understand that the source of God's wrath is his retributive justice. Keep that connection in mind as the concepts of propitiation are intertwined with satisfaction of God's justice.

Secondly, the satisfaction of divine justice is through punishment. Not compensation in any other way. And this is very important. This has to be punishment on Christ rather than some kind of equivalent suffering, as most other theories, even versions of substitution put forth. If the suffering is not punishment, then the demands of retributive justice go unsatisfied.
So yes. God punished Jesus. Did you get that Jon? I will explain how this works in the next post.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Yes. Here is a good way to explain it. And it requires several steps.
First, understand that the source of God's wrath is his retributive justice. Keep that connection in mind as the concepts of propitiation are intertwined with satisfaction of God's justice.

Secondly, the satisfaction of divine justice is through punishment. Not compensation in any other way. And this is very important. This has to be punishment on Christ rather than some kind of equivalent suffering, as most other theories, even versions of substitution put forth. If the suffering is not punishment, then the demands of retributive justice go unsatisfied.
So yes. God punished Jesus. Did you get that Jon? I will explain how this works in the next post.
Why do you believe that God's wrath is retributive justice?

Can you defend the theory that the satisfaction of divine justice is through punishment?

Don't get me wrong here. I agree that God's wrath results in punishment and that the wicked will be punished.

But the idea that justice is satisfied through punishment is a bit odd.


What I mean is in the Bible punishment is never a satisfaction of justice. Instead it is used for a greater purpose. It seems that you are minimizing both sin and God's righteousness.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Now, Jesus was sinless. It is indeed wrong to punish an innocent person. So if Jesus were to act as a pure substitute does that not create a problem? It does if it were not for the specific situation of this atoning sacrifice, which can never be repeated.

Jesus is God but through the incarnation became a man. That's one of the reasons he insisted upon being baptized. He was showing his identification with us in both events. This is important because simple substitution of him bearing our sins instead of us, though true as a fact, does not adequately explain what went on. In truth, Jesus became our proxy, capable of acting for us and on our behalf, even to the point of taking on our guilt and sin and the punishment due us. Luther talked about this in graphic terms which are almost shocking until you understand what he is meaning. So we don't simply have a case of our sins being put on Jesus and thus we are done - even though this is true but the full explanation is that Jesus became sin for us, and took on all our sin as our proxy and bore all the punishment due us.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
What is the purpose of divine punishment?
It should be self evident, even for a neophyte, but for anyone who might read this, the purpose of divine punishment is to satisfy divine justice. And remember, this is at a level with no appeal, modification or overturning. It simply is as scripture states. And to review this is what it consists of:
Let's use "satisfaction" to include all aspects and all ways of describing legal sanctions. Satisfaction for sin includes payment of the debt, appeasement of divine wrath, expiation of our guilt. This is why you see different ways of describing our situation before God and the differences are for a fuller explanation, in order to help us, rather than to be used to cause confusion by picking them apart. If sin is talked about as a debt in a passage it should not be thought of as opposed to the appeasement of divine wrath for example.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Obviously no PSA theorists can answer those questions. The reason is the judicial philosophy lost favor in the 18th century (it exists today in civil contracts and Penal Substitution Theory). It simply fails in terms of justice.
I just explained it. That silliness is not helpful. If you don't accept my answers that is your choice. If people read this and think it fails then they should reject PSA. Whole books are written on the legal theories but they are beyond the scope of this discussion. Jesus himself bearing our sin doesn't fail in terms of justice. That is for sure.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Circular argument.

I ask "How does punishment satisfy divine justice?" You say punishment satisfies divine justice because divine justice requires punishment.
Well how can you ask something like this. Are you really going to say that a law broken, and a punishment meted out does not satisfy justice? You have a law, a stated punishment for breaking that law, a violation, a pronouncement of the punishment, and punishment carried out - resulting in justice satisfied.

Why do you believe that God's wrath is retributive justice?

Can you defend the theory that the satisfaction of divine justice is through punishment?
Don't get me wrong here. I agree that God's wrath results in punishment and that the wicked will be punished.
That's about the same as I would have said. The only thing you left out was that God would not punish unjustly so indeed I assume that divine punishment is retributive justice. Don't get caught up too much in "wrath" because it has limits in comparing to our wrath, which brings to mind all kinds of things different than God's wrath.

What I mean is in the Bible punishment is never a satisfaction of justice. Instead it is used for a greater purpose. It seems that you are minimizing both sin and God's righteousness.
That's a bizarre statement. You are just putting all your complaints awkwardly into one sentence that makes no sense.

@JonC. In all seriousness, you really need to think about what is happening here. For years now you basically follow people around on this board in an almost harassing manner when it comes to PSA. It is unhealthy and frankly, a little weird. I first thought maybe it is an anti-Calvinist thing but after I keep pointing out that many non-Calvinists also use PSA an an atonement model I just really wonder. You know, you could always change back and refute this bizarre detour you took from the truth. It is not too late. Most people don't keep the same beliefs all their lives. But seriously, there is something a little "off" here that is disconcerting. You have started two threads now that begin by naming me personally, and you abruptly end them after giving yourself the last word. Step back and see how this looks.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
@JonC. In all seriousness, you really need to think about what is happening here. For years now you basically follow people around on this board in an almost harassing manner when it comes to PSA. It is unhealthy and frankly, a little weird. I first thought maybe it is an anti-Calvinist thing but after I keep pointing out that many non-Calvinists also use PSA an an atonement model I just really wonder. You know, you could always change back and refute this bizarre detour you took from the truth. It is not too late. Most people don't keep the same beliefs all their lives. But seriously, there is something a little "off" here that is disconcerting. You have started two threads now that begin by naming me personally, and you abruptly end them after giving yourself the last word. Step back and see how this looks.
Again you resort to insults and ad hominem. I am trying to find a legitimate statement in your post, but I cannot. It is all just emotional nonsense.

My request was for you to explain how punishment satisfies divine justice, what it accomolishes and its purpose.

It is a legitimate question.

Why do you believe that God's wrath is retributive justice?

Can you defend the theory that the satisfaction of divine justice is through punishment?

That's a bizarre statement. You are just putting all your complaints awkwardly into one sentence that makes no sense.
How so? There were no complaints in that statement. I made a comment about justice in the Bible.

What part part confused you?

That's about the same as I would have said. The only thing you left out was that God would not punish unjustly so indeed I assume that divine punishment is retributive justice. Don't get caught up too much in "wrath" because it has limits in comparing to our wrath, which brings to mind all kinds of things different than God's wrath.
God's wrath against the wicked is important. We escape that wrath to come. It cannot simply be ignored when dealing with justice.

I just explained it. That silliness is not helpful. If you don't accept my answers that is your choice. If people read this and think it fails then they should reject PSA. Whole books are written on the legal theories but they are beyond the scope of this discussion. Jesus himself bearing our sin doesn't fail in terms of justice. That is for sure.
You did not. You merely repeated the idea that punishment satisfies justice.

You keep leaning on humanism, but you never explain why.

When I ask you just offer a circular statement and start with the insults.


And yes, I know I obsess over the gospel of Jesus Christ (that is, ultimately, the discussion here). I know that many become uncomfortable and find it bizarre. But that does not bother me.

I post that God will save some, but I realize that these boards attract "Christians" who have been carried away by their philosophy. I was almost in that position, almost carried away. I do not post to persuade but instead I write in the hope some may examine their views and turn to God. I post in the hope God will save some.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
@DaveXR650

Maybe it will help you comprehend if we approach this another way.

The 16th century secular philosophy says "every crime must be punished, punishment satisfies the law".You say every sin must be punished, punishment satisfies divine justice. I cannot help but see a parallel.

So, punishment satisfies justice.

What is divine justice?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Are you really going to say that a law broken, and a punishment meted out does not satisfy justice?
Yes. I am saying that a law broken and a punishmeny meted out, while a just punishment if the guilty is punished, does not satisfy justice itself.

Punishment is meted out for a purpose.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Yes. I am saying that a law broken and a punishmeny meted out, while a just punishment if the guilty is punished, does not satisfy justice itself.

Punishment is meted out for a purpose.
This indicates a completely different mind set and attitude toward he Almighty that I don't know how to respond to. It would be like Adam telling God "So just because I ate from this tree I am going to die? How's that supposed to accomplish anything?" There indeed may be other purposes, but they are not what controls the punishment. It is not for you to decide nor is it for you to decide whether it properly satisfies justice.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Maybe it will help you comprehend if we approach this another way.

The 16th century secular philosophy says "every crime must be punished, punishment satisfies the law".You say every sin must be punished, punishment satisfies divine justice. I cannot help but see a parallel.
There should be a parallel. Western civilization has built it's system of justice with a huge influence from the Bible. And, to turn it around and use the judicial philosophy of your time as a model for your understanding of these things is natural. That's I think, why you see a heavy influence on the writings of early churchmen of the contemporary situation they lived under. For instance, the emphasis on the comic battle of spiritual forces in high places. When facing the world they lived in, and the fact that anyone who follows Christ will probably come into conflict with the powers in charge there will be a heavy emphasis on that rather than the need to internalize and look more at personal sins or wrong attitudes we might have. It's not that they didn't, but just that they faced bigger, more dramatic and external threats at every turn than most of us do.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
You know, in all seriousness, without speaking for anyone else (since these threads have no other participants) I should just say that when I look at the atonement writings of the early churchmen, Menno Simons, Anselm or Aquinas, I seldom find something I would feel the need to refute or oppose. Maybe the exception would be some of the early church writings where a ransom was paid to Satan or God tricked Satan into exceeding his authority - but even then, I can see why they might have thought what they did.

And when I read guys you like, for instance Menno Simons, he seems to have no problem saying "The innocent One bore the burden of the whole world, blotted out and made atonement with His crimson blood for the guilt of all, as the scriptures declare, I restored that which I had not taken." He is speaking in judicial terms. Then though he immediately says "Jesus undid the disobedience of Adam and all his seed and by His painful death restored life." Now is that recapitulation, or bearing sin with us as opposed to instead of, or was there an aspect of taking on the guilt of all. Probably all those things. When not doing theology, as all these early writings as well as scripture illustrates, the way to convey truth is to state the various aspects in the various situations and contexts when they are mentioned - without trying to have a complete theological explanation necessary in every instance. But is it not legitimate to ask if it is possible to understand dealing with "guilt" resulting from lawlessness and iniquity and knowing that a violent death and shedding of blood is what the remedy entails - to not have punishment be involved. In fact, I think that looking at every aspect of the atonement from scripture as well as all the writings available one will eventually always come up with penal substitution as being an aspect or facet or motif of the atonement understanding.

So like I said, when I read scripture or churchmen writing about Christ's work and they have varying aspects of emphasis it doesn't bother me. What we need to know is that Jesus died for our sins according to the scriptures. But it's not that we will face an examination to where our salvation is in jeopardy if we don't have a complete understanding. But contrary to what you have said, I have not found any of the early churchmen or theologians who are good guys so to speak, who actively refute penal substitution like it is a false doctrine. Only you, and Socinus, and the modernists. I listen to modern guys who I respect and think are decent people who claim to reject penal substitution but I get conflicting answers. In the video debate between William Lane Craig and Greg Boyd, Greg says that he thinks they are not so far apart as he thought. So, I don't know what else to say on this subject. I think I have said that before but I have seen no new information that would change my mind. What you will do is come on with condescending posts and then, as you always do, say something and then abruptly close the thread. That is rude and it shows that you don't care enough about my beliefs to really even consider them.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
@JonC,
I am coming to this thread for the first time. I still don't have time to post much, but I wonder if you would like to define what 'Retributive Justice' is, and why you think that, say, Genesis 38:7-10 isn't it.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
This indicates a completely different mind set and attitude toward he Almighty that I don't know how to respond to. It would be like Adam telling God "So just because I ate from this tree I am going to die? How's that supposed to accomplish anything?" There indeed may be other purposes, but they are not what controls the punishment. It is not for you to decide nor is it for you to decide whether it properly satisfies justice.
It is different, I agree.

I do not believe that punishment satisfies divine judgements. It is not justice as described in the Bible.

There are two types of biblical judgment (you are confusing the two).

There is temporal judgment (judgment in this lifetime). David sinned and faced punishment for his sin. This punishment itself did not satisfy justice. The change in David did (his repentance, his turning back to God, realizing he had sinned against God). But punishment was used for this purpose.

Same with Adam. Adam sinned and was punished in his life on earth. This had sn effect on Adam. It had a purpose. Punishment itself was not what justice demanded.

The other judgment is a final judgment. This is after we die. Here the punishment on the wicked is to be cast out, to be cast into the Lake of Fire (the Second death). Punishment itself will not satisfy justice (what it produces does).

This is why God punishing the Just to clear the guilty would accomplish nothing. It would be punishment without purpose.


I am not deciding this. This is in God's words. God will not punish the Just or clear the guilty (God is just). Punishment is to "put an end to evil".


How do you define divine justice?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
@JonC,
I am coming to this thread for the first time. I still don't have time to post much, but I wonder if you would like to define what 'Retributive Justice' is, and why you think that, say, Genesis 38:7-10 isn't it.
Retributive justice is punishing an offender proportional to their crime.

In the view of justice this is God "putting sn end to evil". It is preserving justice.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
You know, in all seriousness, without speaking for anyone else (since these threads have no other participants) I should just say that when I look at the atonement writings of the early churchmen, Menno Simons, Anselm or Aquinas, I seldom find something I would feel the need to refute or oppose. Maybe the exception would be some of the early church writings where a ransom was paid to Satan or God tricked Satan into exceeding his authority - but even then, I can see why they might have thought what they did.

And when I read guys you like, for instance Menno Simons, he seems to have no problem saying "The innocent One bore the burden of the whole world, blotted out and made atonement with His crimson blood for the guilt of all, as the scriptures declare, I restored that which I had not taken." He is speaking in judicial terms. Then though he immediately says "Jesus undid the disobedience of Adam and all his seed and by His painful death restored life." Now is that recapitulation, or bearing sin with us as opposed to instead of, or was there an aspect of taking on the guilt of all. Probably all those things. When not doing theology, as all these early writings as well as scripture illustrates, the way to convey truth is to state the various aspects in the various situations and contexts when they are mentioned - without trying to have a complete theological explanation necessary in every instance. But is it not legitimate to ask if it is possible to understand dealing with "guilt" resulting from lawlessness and iniquity and knowing that a violent death and shedding of blood is what the remedy entails - to not have punishment be involved. In fact, I think that looking at every aspect of the atonement from scripture as well as all the writings available one will eventually always come up with penal substitution as being an aspect or facet or motif of the atonement understanding.

So like I said, when I read scripture or churchmen writing about Christ's work and they have varying aspects of emphasis it doesn't bother me. What we need to know is that Jesus died for our sins according to the scriptures. But it's not that we will face an examination to where our salvation is in jeopardy if we don't have a complete understanding. But contrary to what you have said, I have not found any of the early churchmen or theologians who are good guys so to speak, who actively refute penal substitution like it is a false doctrine. Only you, and Socinus, and the modernists. I listen to modern guys who I respect and think are decent people who claim to reject penal substitution but I get conflicting answers. In the video debate between William Lane Craig and Greg Boyd, Greg says that he thinks they are not so far apart as he thought. So, I don't know what else to say on this subject. I think I have said that before but I have seen no new information that would change my mind. What you will do is come on with condescending posts and then, as you always do, say something and then abruptly close the thread. That is rude and it shows that you don't care enough about my beliefs to really even consider them.
Lol.... no. That thread was closed because the topic changed. The posts were moved here under an appropriate title.

Why all the insults. I am asking about your philosophy. It is not condescending to ask how you define justice and how it is satisfied by punishment.


My "modern view" that is "Socinus' view" is also the view we read in the Bible (God's words verbatum).

When Socinus insisted that punishing the Just and clearing the guilty are alike abominations to God he was quoting Scripture. When I say the same I am not quoting Socinus but God.

How do you define divine justice?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I do not understand why some find it bizarre to ask that one's assumptions and philosophies be explained when it comes to such an important topic.

If punishment satisfies divine justice rather than being a means to an end (justice) then this has to be explanned.

If punishment itself is a means to achieve justice then PSA is wrong (punishing Christ would not come to that end).


Basically it appears Calvinists believe that sin creates a need on God that He must meet.

This is wrong. Punishment serves a purpose. It is to bring about justice by punishing the wicked or wickedness in a person.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
How do you define divine justice?

This is wrong. Punishment serves a purpose. It is to bring about justice by punishing the wicked or wickedness in a person.
Divine justice will be satisfied when the specified punishment demanded by the supreme judge is accomplished. Specifically, God determines suitable punishment for law breakers and when it is meted out justice is satisfied.
Did I or did I not answer the same way you did? You ask why people get tired of you asking? It's because you ask the same question over and over, refuse to accept the answer without rebuttal, then come up with the same answer.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
If punishment itself is a means to achieve justice then PSA is wrong (punishing Christ would not come to that end).
You have such an animosity to PSA that no explanation will ever be accepted by you. And frankly, all I ask is that you show enough respect to accept my answers, not as true or right, but at least as may answer and stop asking the same question again and then being offended when people get irritated.

Now, reading the above, you said the purpose of punishment is to bring about justice by punishing the wicked. I said that punishment for law breakers satisfies justice. I am happy to include that it "brings about justice". In Revelation 6:10 where martyrs are call impatiently for justice for themselves we would agree that when it occurs it will be "brought about" as a fact, and I would ad that since it is directly at the hand of God it satisfies his concept of justice. If it didn't, then He would do something else or tell the martyrs look, I am going to simply forgive the ones who killed you.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Basically it appears Calvinists believe that sin creates a need on God that He must meet.
You should know that there are differences of opinion on this. Can anyone or anything really create a "need" in God. I rather prefer to say that we observe that it is within God's revealed nature to in a sense, in our language to say He must meet it. The "must" is only because of either his nature or by his truly free will.
 
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