Recent content by rstrats

The context of all of Romans 14 from beginning to end is about food and ideas with regard to eating and not eating. Nothing is mentioned about the Sabbath. Verse 6 explains to what verse 5 is referring; that the verse is talking about eating or not eating (fasting) on certain days of the week...

Maybe, I'm merely pointing out that 1 Corinthians 16:2 is not an appropriate verse to use as support for a meeting on the first day on the week. - although, I suppose someone might dig out an ultra-modern "translation" from some loony bin organization which interprets it that way.;)

What do you mean by "under the Law"? Do you include the 10 commandments as part of the law? Other than Hebrews 4:9, which may or may not be a command, depending on the translation being used , I'm not aware of any actual command to observe the Sabbath. So, it's down to using the silence...

You don't know that. I never said that.

Only two times to be exact. And in neither of those two times is anything said about rest and worship. So, I don't think that those two examples are really appropriate as proof texts for suggesting that they were evidence that the Lord had changed His commandment for rest and worship from the...

See post #56.

I don't see the difference with regard to its meaning.

Just so it's understood that scripture is silent with regard to that.

How am I being inconsistent?

Those are two different words. China is referring to a country whereas Chinese is referring to things with regard to the country. Lord's day and day of the Lord, however, are using the same word.

What is the difference in saying Ben1445's house and the house of Ben1445?

I don't see what your point is. Not that it is very likely, it actually is the day that is called the Lord's Day - just not by scripture. You left out apolard's comment, "especially since: 'One person esteems [one] day above another; another esteems every day [alike]. Let each be fully...

I'm not saying that folks weren't meeting on the first day of the week, I'm simply pointing out that (with the exeception of the one time instances in John 20:19 and Acts 20:7) that scripture is silent with regard to the practice of meeting on the first day of the week. I don't see what that...

It just seems odd that scripture never mentions the practice.

Nor is there any verse that even implies that the first day of the week is referred to as the "Lord's Day" in scripture. I don't see how that implies it's the "Lord's Day". However, If any day could be considered the "Lord's Day, it would be the Sabbath because in Matthew 12:8, The Messiah...