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Featured KJV VS. NKJV

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Preacher2015, Mar 1, 2016.

  1. stevewm1963

    stevewm1963 Member
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    All my life I've read the KJV and i will continue to do so! Many say they cannot understand the KJV and that is so confusing to me because i understand it just fine! So would others if they allow the Holy Spirit to teach them! With out the Holy Spirit guiding and teaching us then there is not a bible written we could understand!

    John 14:26 King James Version (KJV)
    26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

    1 John 2:27King James Version (KJV)
    27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
     
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  2. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The NKJV Old Testament is based on Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia and the KJV is based on the Hebrew text of Daniel Bomberg's Second Rabbinic Bible, as edited by Rabbi Abraham Ben Chayyim. Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia differs from the Ben Chayyim text, (Bomberg) in only eight places: Proverbs 8:16; Isaiah 10:16; Isaiah 27:2; Isaiah 38:14; Jeremiah 34:1; Ezekiel 30:18; Zephaniah 3:15; and Malachi 1:12. And in every case the NKJV follows the reading of the KJV.
     
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  3. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    This same method applies to all bible versions. The Spirit works through His word. Last I checked the word of God was written in anything but English.

    I like to use the KJV, NIV, YLT, and NASB(to a lesser extent).
     
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  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps your understanding is incorrect.

    If you mean that they used an imperfect edition of the Hebrew text, the same is true of the KJV translators. The NKJV translators used a different printed edition of the same Hebrew text used in the making of the KJV, and they also consulted and compared their printed edition to the same edition used in the making of the KJV. The NKJV translators followed the ben Chayyim text in the few places where their printed edition differed so they in effect followed the same Hebrew text as the KJV translators.

    Did you not notice in the preface to the NKJV about "frequent comparisons being made with the Bomberg edition of 1524-25"?

    The KJV translators consulted the Greek Septuagint just as the NKJV translators did, and the KJV translators were sometimes influenced by the Greek Septuagint.
     
  5. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I could pick up & read-understand a Slobbovian Bible version if the Holy Spirit wanted me to, but He assigned everyday USA English to me as my language. While I, who read Chaucer at an early age, have no trouble with the KJV, not everyone can say the same, especially someone who learned English as a 2nd language. I have often mentioned the Korean doctor whom I lent a KJV while he was waiting for a Korean-language Bible to arrive, and came across "suffer little children" & was baffled by it.

    God has caused His word to be translated into TODAY'S English for our benefit. remember, it's GOD who made all languages, & causes/allows changes in each of them.

    I use the NKJV & NASV equally as much. I study several older translations such as Wycliffe's & Geneva.
     
  6. stevewm1963

    stevewm1963 Member
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    Well I'm an American and I assume every nation has their own version of Gods Word in their language! I wouldn't expect someone unfamiliar with the english language to understand the KJV...I assume I'm speaking to english speaking Americans when I post on here!
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Would say that the NKJV would be the rightful heir to the KJV, and should be seen as being tit upgraded into modern version!
     
  8. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    NKJV

    Hebrews 3:16
    For who, having heard, rebelled? Indeed, was it not all who came out of Egypt, led by Moses?

    KJV Hebrews 3:16
    For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses.

    KJV II Kings 23:29
    In his days Pharaohnechoh king of Egypt went up against the king of Assyria to the river Euphrates: and king Josiah went against him; and he slew him at Megiddo, when he had seen him.


    NKJV II Kings 23:29
    In his days Pharaoh Necho king of Egypt went to the aid of the king of Assyria, to the River Euphrates; and King Josiah went against him. And Pharaoh Necho killed him at Megiddo when he confronted him.

    The NKJV says the opposite of the KJV in some places... the NKJV is a [Edited to remove vile attack on the bible] of the KJV.

    KJV Hebrews 2:16
    For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

    NKJV Hebrews 2:16
    For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He doesgive aid to the seed of Abraham.

    Wow... what a [Edited to remove vile attack on the bible] here!

    http://www.letgodbetrue.com/bible/scripture/new-king-james-version.php
     
    #48 Jordan Kurecki, Mar 15, 2016
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 15, 2016
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  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    That is interesting. When we read Shakespeare, then, is it due to the genre that he maintains such language ("thees" and "thous")? Or was it still common usage at the tail end of the 16th century?
     
  10. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    No. It was the formal use of language on the stage of that day. The common people speaking every day did not use the old pronouns.
     
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  11. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Shakespeare tends to use 'you' most of the time. Interestingly, he uses the archaic forms most often (though not exclusively) for terms of abuse. "Thou knave, thou naughty knave" etc.
     
  12. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    In another English masterpiece I recall a few "thees" and "thous," but brother Maynard was using "religious" language. I can understand archaic language and immagry used in poetry and other literary forms. And in this translation I can understand the use as both formal and precise language.

    I found this interesting. It's good to learn new stuff. :)
     
  13. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    Huh?

    [​IMG]
     
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