• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Where does God tell men to make a Bible?

Former Member Amorphous

Nephilim Slayer
Where does God tell men to compile writings and call it a Bible?

People might point to the verse that says all scripture is God breathed, but where does it say which ones are God breathed? At the time all in the Bible wasn't written yet, but the Israelite Tanakh was called the scriptures.

Sent from my 5054N using Tapatalk
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Where does God tell men to compile writings and call it a Bible?

People might point to the verse that says all scripture is God breathed, but where does it say which ones are God breathed? At the time all in the Bible wasn't written yet, but the Israelite Tanakh was called the scriptures.

Sent from my 5054N using Tapatalk

Isaiah 8:16 is a Messanic prophecy that predicts "the Law" (old Testament scriptures) and "the testimony" (New Testament scriptures) would be completed (bound and sealed) "among my disciples."

The last living apostle (John) acknowledge what he has written (the book of Revelation) was "the testimony" in addition to "the word of God" (Rev. 1:2) and he brought the readers from the first century circumstances right into the circumstances of eternity (Rev. 21-22:3) and then concluded it sealed it with a curse (Rev. 22:17-18) until jesus comes (Rev. 22:19-20) just as Isaiah prophesied (Isa. 8:17-18) and it is to "the law and the Testimony" as one unified "this word" as the final authority for faith and practice (Isa. 8:20).
 

Former Member Amorphous

Nephilim Slayer
Isaiah 8:16 is a Messanic prophecy that predicts "the Law" (old Testament scriptures) and "the testimony" (New Testament scriptures) would be completed (bound and sealed) "among my disciples."

The last living apostle (John) acknowledge what he has written (the book of Revelation) was "the testimony" in addition to "the word of God" (Rev. 1:2) and he brought the readers from the first century circumstances right into the circumstances of eternity (Rev. 21-22:3) and then concluded it sealed it with a curse (Rev. 22:17-18) until jesus comes (Rev. 22:19-20) just as Isaiah prophesied (Isa. 8:17-18) and it is to "the law and the Testimony" as one unified "this word" as the final authority for faith and practice (Isa. 8:20).
How do you show that's looking to the future, and not a statement to Isaiah concerning that time? Isaiah 8:16 seems to bear resemblance of what God told Daniel:

But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end... Daniel 12:4a KJV

So how do you know "Bind up this testimony" isn't the specific testimony of what Isaiah received from God? And if the latter part of the verse means the 12 disciples, as opposed to the disciples of that time, and it says "seal the law (torah) among my disciples," why aren't we avoiding bacon and observing Sabbath if the law is sealed among us?





Sent from my 5054N using Tapatalk
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
How do you show that's looking to the future, and not a statement to Isaiah concerning that time? Isaiah 8:16 seems to bear resemblance of what God told Daniel:

But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end... Daniel 12:4a KJV

So how do you know "Bind up this testimony" isn't the specific testimony of what Isaiah received from God? And if the latter part of the verse means the 12 disciples, as opposed to the disciples of that time, and it says "seal the law (torah) among my disciples," why aren't we avoiding bacon and observing Sabbath if the law is sealed among us?





Sent from my 5054N using Tapatalk

I gather it is from several contextual reasons. First, the overall context is Messianic from Isa. 7:14 to Isaiah 9:6. Second the immediate context is messianic as Isaiah 8:14-15 is directly quoted and applied to Christ by New Testament writers. Third, the very descriptive purpose given by Isaiah for "my disciples" as "signs and wonders" in Isaiah 8:17-18 is quoted by the writer of Hebrews and applied directly to Christ and his apostles (Heb. 2:3-4, 12). Fourth, Christ predicted that his "testimony" would be preserved by the apostles as the Holy Spirit would bring to their remembrance and lead them into "all" truth (Jn. 14-17). Fifth the Apostles realized they were providing a new body of scriptures (2 Pet. 3:15-17; Rev. 1:2; 2 Thes. 2:15).

Sixth, with regard to Daniel, God is merely speaking of the book of Daniel, but in Isaiah 8:16 it includes "the Law" and "the testimony" being bound and sealed so that they are combined to be "this word" which is final authority (Isa. 8:20).

Seventh, there is no question there is a limited historical application of Isaiah 8:16-18 just as there is for Isaiah 7:14 and 9:6 but the quotation of this text by New Testament writers prove it had a prophetical application beyond the historical context.
 
Last edited:

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Obviously God has used human instruments to establish His word into eternity.

In reality He doesn't need us to set forth His word but has chosen the human race to participate in it's propagation.

I believe this is one of satan's pet peeves against God that He has chosen ignorant human sinners of flesh to reveal His holy word. I suspect his expectation was that he (satan) should have been given that task.

Psalm 119:89 LAMED. For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.

HankD
 
Top