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Featured Faith being credited as righteousness? Part deux

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SovereignGrace, Sep 17, 2016.

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  1. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Yeshua1 posted "God imputes to us as sinners the rightiousness of Jesus, and that is His direct work!"

    Van responded by saying Did you forget to support this myth with scripture? And did you notice SG omitted "it" (faith)? If this is the best the nameless doctrine folks have, scant would be an exaggeration."

    Now, was Abraham's, and consequently our, imputatation a myth?
     
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Romans 4:4-5, 23-24. Faith is credited, counted, reckoned as righteousness to believers by God.
     
  3. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    But aren't we imputed with the righteousness of Jesus Christ?
     
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  4. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    "What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin. As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one;[Romans 3:9,10]

    Now, the unregenerate, all of them are unrighteous, being outside of Christ. Unless Christ's righteousness is imputed, they remain in an state of unrighteousness. That is why being accounted, credited, reckoned, imputed mean the same thing.
     
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  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The mythology of the nameless doctrine is spewed continually on this BB.
    1) Imputed does not mean the same as credited, reckoned, or counted.
    2) No verse says Christ's righteous is injected into the unrighteous to make them holy.
    3) We are made the righteousness of God in Him (Christ). We undergo the circumcision of Christ and then arise in Christ a new creation. Having undergone the washing of regeneration we are holy, blameless and perfect.

    In summary, first God credits our faith as righteousness, and then God transfers us into Christ where we are born anew, and then sealed in Christ with the Holy Spirit.
     
  6. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Then whose righteousness do we have?
     
  7. JamesL

    JamesL Well-Known Member
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    I'm curious, and 100% serious....

    It seems that you're confusing imputed with imparted.

    Seventh Day Adventists believe we have imparted righteousness, which seems to be what you're ascribing to whatever unnamed doctrine you hate
     
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  8. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Yes it is. You must be talking about imparted or infused righteousness.
     
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  9. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps it may be helpful to have the help of a dictionary to know what 'impute' means in English.
    Here is the Oxford Concise Dictionary:
    impu't|e v.t. Attribute, ascribe, (esp. fault etc. to a person etc.); (Theol.) ascribe (righteousness, guilt etc. to a person) by virtue of similar quality in another.

    1 Corinthians 5:21. 'God made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.'

    We have righteousness of our own, we were sinners and under the righteous condemnation of God. But on the cross, Christ, the sinless One had all our sins imputed (attributed, ascribed, reckoned) to Him, and His perfect righteousness imputed (attributed, ascribed, reckoned) to us. Alleluia!
     
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  10. JamesL

    JamesL Well-Known Member
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    Here's a pretty decent explanation.....

    I. The doctrine of "imputed righteousness" teaches that God graciously charges to the account of believers in Christ the righteousness wrought by Christ. It is at length expounded in Romans 3:21-4:25. Here we are taught that the righteousness wrought by Christ during the days of His incarnation is imputed to, or charged to the account of, believers by God in justification. The justified acknowledge Christ to be not only "Jehovah Our Righteousness" (Jeremiah 23:6) – but also their only righteousness (Psalm 71:16). And they pray to be "found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith" (Philippians 3:9).

    It may aid one in understanding this doctrine if he will ever bear in mind that in justification righteousness is imputed, not imparted. And justification does not make one righteous, but merely declares him to be so. And the imputation of righteousness does not change one inwardly and subjectively, this being the work of sanctification, not justification.

    II. The doctrine of "imparted righteousness" teaches that God bestows righteousness to believers. Some theologians use the term imparted righteousness to identify the righteous nature imparted by God to believers when He regenerates them. They thereby become "partakers of the divine nature" (2 Peter 1:4). This "divine nature" (not God's essential nature) is the new one placed in men in regeneration, and which is ever in conflict with the old Adamic nature. It is the "seed" of God placed in man which "cannot sin" (1 John 3:9).

    III. The doctrine of "infused righteousness" teaches that God justifies in accord with a righteousness merited by Christ instilled into the believer and maintained by good works. This doctrine, especially prominent in the Roman Catholic Church, accords with its doctrine of justification by works. It posits the believer receives both imputed and infused righteousness, the latter becoming his inherent righteousness, and one is justified on the basis of what he personally does with it.

    Find it here:
    http://www.ccel.org/node/4123/18197
     
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  11. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    And Jesus answering saith to them, 'Have faith of God; Mark 11:22 YLT

    But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; Romans 3:21 KJV

    The righteousness of God is manifested. How was it manifested? What is witnessed by the law and the prophets that was fulfilled, witch manifested, the righteousness of God? The soul that sins, it shall die. The soul that sins, it shall die. What about the soul that did not sin, yet was made sin in our stead and died for our sins. The wages of the sin is death. Shall it remain dead, forever?

    How was the righteousness of God manifested?

    Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: Romans 3:22 KJV

    And Jesus answering saith to them, 'Have faith of God; Mark 11:22

    For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man’s obedience many will be made righteous. Romans 5:19 NKJV

    Comment on R5:19 I used NKJV because of them inserting, "Man's," which I believe to be correct in that the thought is carried through from verse 15 where the word, "anthrōpos," is used relative to Jesus. BTW I do believe Jesus is God.

    for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him. 2 Cor 5:21 YLT

    Now would one or all of you tie together, the obedience of one, with the faith of Jesus relative to the righteousness of God, and us being in Christ? Also I believe the Spirit of Truth, our receiving the Holy Spirit, must tie in, somehow.
     
  12. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Imputed righteousness is the standard Reformation understanding of justification. The righteousness of Christ is counted as our righteousness before God, even though we have none of our own.

    Wesley agrees that at the new birth God imputes the righteousness of Christ to our account. But sanctification requires the imparted righteousness of Christ as our nature gradually becomes more like Christ's as we are obedient to him, cooperating in the process that removes sin from our lives.

    The Latin Rite believes that righteousness is infused, that is, we become justified and sanctified (they are a continuous process) from the sacraments and good works as the Holy Spirit works to make us more like Christ.

    Or something like that.
     
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  13. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Van saying we are not imputed the righteousness of Christ is what I take humbrage with. Our righteousness is a dirty menstrual cloth.
     
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  14. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    righteousness of Christ

    Is that phrase used in any Greek text?
     
  15. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    I dug this up on google. The Greek scholars can chime in and see if this is correct or not and if it was that way in the scriptures.


    righteousness of Christ.....δικαιοσύνη του Χριστού
     
  16. JamesL

    JamesL Well-Known Member
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    I think the closest thing to that phrase is found in 2Peter 1:1

    Righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ

    I don't have a Greek font on my phone, but it reads...

    dikaiosune tou Theou emon kai soteros Iesou Christou
     
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  17. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    That is correct. The same idea is found in 1 Corinthians 1:30; 2 Corinthians 5:21 & Romans 5:19.
     
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  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The mythology of the nameless doctrine is spewed continually on this BB.
    1) Imputed does not mean the same as credited, reckoned, or counted.
    2) No verse says Christ's righteous is injected into the unrighteous to make them holy.
    3) We are made the righteousness of God in Him (Christ). We undergo the circumcision of Christ and then arise in Christ a new creation. Having undergone the washing of regeneration we are holy, blameless and perfect.

    In summary, first God credits our faith as righteousness, and then God transfers us into Christ where we are born anew, and then sealed in Christ with the Holy Spirit.

    1 Corinthians 5:21. 'God made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.'

    Does scripture say that we might have Christ's righteousness imputed to us? Nope. The whole concept is just more nameless doctrine mythology.

    Now did anyone say impute means impart? Nope. Impute = To attribute to a person as transmitted by another. Thus the word is a mistranslation. We become, repeat become the righteousness of God in Him.
     
  19. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    You can repeat this over and over and over (and I'm sure you will) but you are just wrong. Imputed means exactly the same as credited, reckoned or counted. You can look it up.


    Maybe I missed it. Where did someone say that?
     
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  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi RSR, it is not me but scripture that says become the righteousness of God in Him. Now refer to the verse that says Christ's righteousness is imputed to us. Tick tock

    Romans 5:19
    For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.

    I have at least two verses on my side of the ledger, made, become, and you have zero. Quote a verse please!

    And credit, reckon, and count do not mean the same as impute, note the attributing the righteousness of another is not part of credit, reckon or count. This should not be this hard. :)
     
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