In our last episode it went like this;
Iconoclast said: ↑
JOJ replied
The language of Hosea is not quoted in the NT.????
Here we go.....[note] in the KJV....Osee= Hosea
24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
25 As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26 And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
After the cross the Holy Spirit has Paul explain that gentiles in the New Covenant church are "now the people of God."
The very language of the New Covenant from Jeremiah 31;
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
When Jer.31 speaks of the new covenant he says one of the main features is...."and will be their God, and they shall be my people"
So when Paul tells us that gentiles are now the people of God right alongside the elect remnant of Jews quoting Hosea......I say that locks it up
What do you say dispensational brothers?
Iconoclast said: ↑
That is my exact point Hank.....
JOJ. Said that Peter did not use the word covenant.
I thought such statements are foolish so I turned the table on him.
Notice he suggests the sand of the sea is an obvious reference to the Abrahamic Covenant In Hosea. ...he allows for that....yet when I use the language from Hosea he suggests it is not covenant language.![]()
JOJ replied
Right, because the language from Hosea is not quoted in the NT, nor is it a representation of anything that any passage says about the new covenant/testament. Your view verges on theological wishful thinking, not careful exegesis.
And for the record, I did not say that Hosea was "not covenant language." I challenged you to prove the connection, which you have not done. Exegete, man, exegete!
The language of Hosea is not quoted in the NT.????

Here we go.....[note] in the KJV....Osee= Hosea
24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
25 As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26 And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
After the cross the Holy Spirit has Paul explain that gentiles in the New Covenant church are "now the people of God."
The very language of the New Covenant from Jeremiah 31;
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
When Jer.31 speaks of the new covenant he says one of the main features is...."and will be their God, and they shall be my people"
So when Paul tells us that gentiles are now the people of God right alongside the elect remnant of Jews quoting Hosea......I say that locks it up

What do you say dispensational brothers?