Repentance of sin

JonC · Nov 18, 2016

Judith said:
I believe that an incorrect and dangerous teaching that has crept into the church and has been around for a very long time.

It is a teaching that by all measures sounds great and even sounds biblical. There is one problem. No where in NT scripture the term used.

I am referring to the teaching of repentance of sin to be saved. The bible actually tells us in Acts 20:21 the repentance that is required and it does not say repentance of sin.

I believe there is several reasons why it does not say repent of your sin, and why no NT Apostle ever preached it.

First it is a works based salvation, but we are saved unto good works not by them, Eph. 2:10. If we could turn from our sin prior to salvation there would be no sanctification process.

Second when we say repent of your sin instead of what scripture says “repentance toward God and faith in the Lord Jesus Christ,” we leave repentance toward God out of the picture for an acceptance based on our now turning from sin.

Most people consider repentance of sin of cleaning up of our lives or at least the promise to do so. A sort of “I don’t smoke, I don’t chew, and I don’t go with girls that do” attitude.

The problem is such an understanding never points them to God. They end up with a false faith in Jesus, but not a biblical repentance/faith in God/Jesus.

Let us not be so naive to think that everyone who “turns from sin” and puts trust in Jesus is also turning to God (repentance toward God). In fact based on what I see in most so called Christians I am of the belief that most who go that route do not really turn to God as He requires.

For one they see Jesus as the one who protects them from God. They also do not have to surrender to the authority of God as their Sovereign because many have been told just ask Jesus into your life and accept Him as your personal Savior.

On the other hand it is impossible to truly turn to God (repentance toward God) and faith in the Lord Jesus Christ and as a consequence not turn from sin.

Make no mistake we are not the friend of Jesus while we remain a rebel towards God.

Many people today seek for heaven (easy believism) if they can just alter their life (repent of sin) yet have no deep desire to get right with God regardless the cost. When confronted they will claim no one is perfect while they remain in rebellion against God which is proven by the fact that they still practice sinning.

Let us return to scripture and teach what it says and not what we want it to say. Acts 20:21
Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.

The word repentance is not a word that means almost, or being sorry, or asking for forgiveness, or praying a prayer. It is like the command about face. It is not 50%, 75%, or 99%. It is a turning to God. It comes from the fact that we are broken over our sin and we want to get right with God regardless the cost 2Cor. 7:10. Only then are we coming to repentance toward God.

We are then told that the cost has already been paid by God’s only begotten Son who suffered on the cross, died for our sin, and rose after the third day for our justification.

We are to now take that same heart we have toward God and place it on the Lord Jesus Christ, which is faith, and we receive eternal life by His grace as we are born again.

That new life that we have been given will be seen through repentance of sin Eph.2:10 as we will now be commandment keepers and never return to the practice of sinning. 1John 2:4, 2:19.
Let us not get the truth of God’s word out of order or leave parts of it out less we be guilty of making someone twice the son’s of hell.

Repentance and belief go together. We repent (turn from) our sins (our sinful acts, acts of disobedience), but in terms of salvation this misses the point to a degree. Repentance is turning from our own self-righteousness, our own ways, ourselves, and turning to God, relying on His righteousness and His ways (belief). It is shifting that love we have for ourselves to a love for God.

The difference is simply that we are to love God. Without God’s work of inclining our hearts to Him, this is impossible. Sins (e.g., sinful acts, transgressions of the Law) are manifestations of our sinfulness. They point to an unloving rebelliousness nature set against God.

In other words, if we love God then we will obey His commandments. This is descriptive of loving God, not a prescription of how to love God. Repentance then is turning to God.

We are not under the Law (either as Christians or as non-believers). The Law was given to a people set aside by God for His purposes in order to show them their sinfulness (in order to “magnify their sin”. Going about it as if we were to obey the Law, or God’s commands, in order to love God is backwards and upside down. It is not that we obey in order to love God, it is that we love God and obedience is both because of and a part of that love.

Revmitchell · Nov 19, 2016

Judith said:
I believe that an incorrect and dangerous teaching that has crept into the church and has been around for a very long time.

No mam, it didn't creep into the church it has been in scripture since its inception. In fact the idea that having a repentant faith is not necessary is a rather recent 20th century invention. Some of the biggest proponents of this false doctrine is the Millennial Exlusionists like Zane Hodges.

The idea of repent is always built into believe. When reading the gospels we need to set aside our Americanized mind set and look at them from the Jewish perspective. Believe was always used in the Jewish sense and not in the American 21 century sense. Given their history of sacrifices for sin repentance would always be understood in any belief by the Jews.

In fact when Jesus was talking with Nicodemus we see it built into that conversation. When Jesus used the illustration of the Serpent in verses 14 and 15 you cannot but see the need for repentance. Further, Jesus goes on to say:

Joh 3:19 And this is the judgment: the light has come into the world, and people loved the darkness rather than the light because their works were evil.
Joh 3:20 For everyone who does wicked things hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his works should be exposed.
Joh 3:21 But whoever does what is true comes to the light, so that it may be clearly seen that his works have been carried out in God."

Given that Jesus speaks of good works and bad works and who it is that owns both the very clear picture of the need of repentance is here. You cannot love the light and love sin the way the world does. Jesus said those who doe wicked things hates the light. We need to remember this entire conversation was spoken in the context of salvation.

Jesus said later that those who do not take up their cross and follow him are not worthy of Him. The Jews understood this to mean what it meant to actually go to the cross. Your old life is gone, you are never to return to it.

The picture of Baptism has repentance built into it. You cannot have the old man die and be buried and then walk in newness of life. The lack of repentance of sin is foreign to the salvation of God.

HankD · Nov 19, 2016

I suppose some one has mentioned the basic semantic philology of the word "repent".
Liddell Scott 26089 repent - metanoeo/metanoia - to change one's mind.

Through its history into NT times it did seem to take on a life of its own, persisting into the realm of modern English. i.e. UBS 03985 repent - Have a change of heart, turn from one's sins, change one's ways (sic).

I believe this can be explained by the passages:

Philippians 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

1 Corinthians 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ

So if we overcome/replace the adamic mind and its way of thinking with the mind of Christ and His way of thinking we therefore have a true biblical "change" of mind.

If we have this kind of a "metanoia-change of mind" then we will not sin (unless we wander from its influence of course).

So while this change starts in the mind (metanoia) there is a "trickle-down" (ya, couldn't find this phrase in the scripture) effect from the mind to the heart to our actions - IMO of course.

There is an interesting passage as to the how and authorship of this "change".
In this case "change" has a similar but different meaning.

2 Corinthians 3:18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed (metamorphoo) into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.

HankD

Yeshua1 · Nov 19, 2016

1187

JonC said:
Repentance and belief go together. We repent (turn from) our sins (our sinful acts, acts of disobedience), but in terms of salvation this misses the point to a degree. Repentance is turning from our own self-righteousness, our own ways, ourselves, and turning to God, relying on His righteousness and His ways (belief). It is shifting that love we have for ourselves to a love for God.

The difference is simply that we are to love God. Without God’s work of inclining our hearts to Him, this is impossible. Sins (e.g., sinful acts, transgressions of the Law) are manifestations of our sinfulness. They point to an unloving rebelliousness nature set against God.

In other words, if we love God then we will obey His commandments. This is descriptive of loving God, not a prescription of how to love God. Repentance then is turning to God.

We are not under the Law (either as Christians or as non-believers). The Law was given to a people set aside by God for His purposes in order to show them their sinfulness (in order to “magnify their sin”. Going about it as if we were to obey the Law, or God’s commands, in order to love God is backwards and upside down. It is not that we obey in order to love God, it is that we love God and obedience is both because of and a part of that love.

There always seems to be an unhealthy view on this issue from extreme sides within the Body, as some would hold that repentance is just needed not as part of te salvation process, while others seem to state that we almost need to repent all sin before really sure actually saved!

I think that you and I agree here tht it is the workin of the Holy Spirt that enables sinners to realise that they cannot save themselves, and need Jesus for that, so repenting from dead works to Him!

Iconoclast · Nov 19, 2016

="JonC, post:

We are not under the Law (either as Christians or as non-believers).

I am not sure if you worded this correctly.The law was not given to provide a way of salvation....but the law was given and all men are under law.
Galatians 4King James Version (KJV)

4 Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all;

2 But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father.

3 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

The Law was given to a people set aside by God for His purposes in order to show them their sinfulness (in order to “magnify their sin”.

It still is....
7 Who goeth a warfare any time at his own charges? who planteth a vineyard, and eateth not of the fruit thereof? or who feedeth a flock, and eateth not of the milk of the flock?

8 Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also?

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen?

10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope.

11 If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?

20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;

21 To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

Going about it as if we were to obey the Law, or God’s commands, in order to love God is backwards and upside down. It is not that we obey in order to love God, it is that we love God and obedience is both because of and a part of that love.

yes...we are now sons.

Yeshua1 · Nov 19, 2016

Iconoclast said:
="JonC, post:

I am not sure if you worded this correctly.The law was not given to provide a way of salvation....but the law was given and all men are under law.
Galatians 4King James Version (KJV)

4 Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all;

2 But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father.

3 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

It still is....
7 Who goeth a warfare any time at his own charges? who planteth a vineyard, and eateth not of the fruit thereof? or who feedeth a flock, and eateth not of the milk of the flock?

8 Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also?

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen?

10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope.

11 If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?

20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;

21 To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

yes...we are now sons.

Are we no now under Grace, the Law of Christ?

Iconoclast · Nov 19, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
Are we no now under Grace, the Law of Christ?

I do not think you understand this issue.
Are Christians lawless?

What does this verse mean?
rom3;
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

HankD · Nov 19, 2016

Iconoclast said:
I do not think you understand this issue.
Are Christians lawless?

What does this verse mean?

RSV Romans 3:31 Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.

Whatever it means it does not say we are under or subject to the law of Moses.
But that we establish or uphold or show forth the purpose of the law - one of the purposes of the law is to keep the flesh in subjection through fear.

1 Timothy 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

We are under a different guidance system:

Galatians 5:18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

This was clarified in the First Church council and detailed in Acts Chapter 15 which is summarized in verse 24 - the whole chapter should be read for the context.

24 Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment:

Another purpose of the law is to condemn the world and shut every mouth in line of defense. Under the law we are condemned.

Romans 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.

We show forth the purpose of the law by coming to Christ by the law of life not the death of breaking the law and committing sin and its conviction thereof.

Romans 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

HankD

Yeshua1 · Nov 21, 2016

Iconoclast said:
I do not think you understand this issue.
Are Christians lawless?

What does this verse mean?
rom3;
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

The Law was the mans God gave to Isreal to govern them, to have them His own peculair people/nation, to tell us His moral absolutes...

Under the New Covenant, we look to Jesus and not the Law, to the Apostles teachings of the NT, as those are the ones given to us for how to live, We all now can also walk in the Hioly Spirit, and thus now actually have the means to fulfill the law...

Revmitchell · Nov 21, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
while others seem to state that we almost need to repent all sin before really sure actually saved!

Who are these people. I keep seeing claims they exist but have never seen one. Can you point some out?

Yeshua1 · Nov 21, 2016

Revmitchell said:
Who are these people. I keep seeing claims they exist but have never seen one. Can you point some out?

The way of the Master, Ray Comfort, he wants to see lost saved, but His method is to have them repent of all known sin and get right before coming to Jesus it would seem...

And his views do mirror some whose message appears to be you must repent and stop sinning and then ready to get saved!

Revmitchell · Nov 21, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
And his views do mirror some whose message appears to be you must repent and stop sinning and then ready to get saved!

Nobody and I mean nobody within orthodox Christianity says that. It is a characterization rather than reality.

Yeshua1 · Nov 21, 2016

Revmitchell said:
Nobody and I mean nobody within orthodox Christianity says that. It is a characterization rather than reality.

Could be the truth, but that is the message that in implying though!

Revmitchell · Nov 21, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
Could be the truth, but that is the message that in implying though!

Or it is the message characterized by those who cannot handle disagreement.

JonC · Nov 21, 2016

Iconoclast said:
="JonC, post:

I am not sure if you worded this correctly.The law was not given to provide a way of salvation....but the law was given and all men are under law.
Galatians 4King James Version (KJV)

4 Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all;

2 But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father.

3 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

It still is....
7 Who goeth a warfare any time at his own charges? who planteth a vineyard, and eateth not of the fruit thereof? or who feedeth a flock, and eateth not of the milk of the flock?

8 Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also?

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen?

10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope.

11 If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?

20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;

21 To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

yes...we are now sons.

This is one area where we will both agree and disagree.

We agree in practice. If we were to examine moral commands under the Law, we would both agree that a violation of any of those commands constitutes sin. We would also agree that these moral commandments are useful in showing or explaining sin to other people.

But we disagree in principle. I believe that the Law was given to Israel, as God’s chosen nation, to demonstrate to them their sinfulness as God’s covenant people. The Law was (or should have been) a constant reminder to Israel of their status and a stark picture of their natures. At the giving of the Law God told Israel that He is faithful, but that this faithfulness also extends to His judgment and God charged them with keeping these commandments (Deuteronomy 7).

And Israel remained under this Law until faith came, that is the faith which is in Jesus Christ. This is one reason, I believe, that salvation came first to the Jew and then the Gentile. Gentiles are “grafted” branches of Israel. But they (those who are saved) were always and eternally the covenant people of God in terms of the Abrahamic Covenant through the New Covenant in Christ (not the Mosaic Covenant). In Galatians Paul teaches us that the Abrahamic Covenant was given 400 years before the Law (Galatians 3:17) and the Law was given until Christ came – until the arrival of the New Covenant (Galatians 3:19). Gentiles (and Hebrews before the Law was given) were not under the Law but were under sin (Romans 3:9). The Law brings knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20).

The Law, then, was never a prescriptive list to follow, but instead was descriptive of the people of God. Those commandments show us what obedience looks like. But we were never under the Law. We are under the Abrahamic Covenant, given 400 years prior to the Law, through the New Covenant – through the blood of Christ.

Anyway, that is what I believe is the difference in our views here (along with an explanation). Where you hold we were under the Law, I believe we were under sin. I am not sure that this is enough of a difference to alter our discussion on this thread, and I certainly believe it not enough a difference to argue over. But I do view the Law as a part of a covenant (the Old Covenant) exclusive to Israel, while I view God's law and a condemnation under sin as universal to mankind.

Iconoclast · Nov 21, 2016

JonC said:
This is one area where we will both agree and disagree.

We agree in practice. If we were to examine moral commands under the Law, we would both agree that a violation of any of those commands constitutes sin. We would also agree that these moral commandments are useful in showing or explaining sin to other people.

But we disagree in principle. I believe that the Law was given to Israel, as God’s chosen nation, to demonstrate to them their sinfulness as God’s covenant people. The Law was (or should have been) a constant reminder to Israel of their status and a stark picture of their natures. At the giving of the Law God told Israel that He is faithful, but that this faithfulness also extends to His judgment and God charged them with keeping these commandments (Deuteronomy 7).

And Israel remained under this Law until faith came, that is the faith which is in Jesus Christ. This is one reason, I believe, that salvation came first to the Jew and then the Gentile. Gentiles are “grafted” branches of Israel. But they (those who are saved) were always and eternally the covenant people of God in terms of the Abrahamic Covenant through the New Covenant in Christ (not the Mosaic Covenant). In Galatians Paul teaches us that the Abrahamic Covenant was given 400 years before the Law (Galatians 3:17) and the Law was given until Christ came – until the arrival of the New Covenant (Galatians 3:19). Gentiles (and Hebrews before the Law was given) were not under the Law but were under sin (Romans 3:9). The Law brings knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20).

The Law, then, was never a prescriptive list to follow, but instead was descriptive of the people of God. Those commandments show us what obedience looks like. But we were never under the Law. We are under the Abrahamic Covenant, given 400 years prior to the Law, through the New Covenant – through the blood of Christ.

Anyway, that is what I believe is the difference in our views here (along with an explanation). Where you hold we were under the Law, I believe we were under sin. I am not sure that this is enough of a difference to alter our discussion on this thread, and I certainly believe it not enough a difference to argue over. But I do view the Law as a part of a covenant (the Old Covenant) exclusive to Israel, while I view God's law and a condemnation under sin as universal to mankind.

Hello JonC,

I think we can agree on a few things here;
8 Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law.

9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.
In the first Covenant, God gave the law[externally on tablets of stone] to a typically redeemed people
[The first Exodus].....

Now In Christ....He gives the law to us[internally in our hearts]
[the Second Exodus]
Heb8
10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.

12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.

We fulfill the law as Sons now;
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

6 And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.

7 Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.

We joyfully keep His commandments now;
9 As the Father hath loved me, so have I loved you: continue ye in my love.

10 If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.

11 These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full.

12 This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.

13 Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.

14 Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you.

15 Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

16 Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.

17 These things I command you, that ye love one another.

Iconoclast · Nov 21, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
The Law was the mans God gave to Isreal to govern them, to have them His own peculair people/nation, to tell us His moral absolutes...

Under the New Covenant, we look to Jesus and not the Law, to the Apostles teachings of the NT, as those are the ones given to us for how to live, We all now can also walk in the Hioly Spirit, and thus now actually have the means to fulfill the law...

We are still to obey the ten commandments....we are not lawless.

Iconoclast · Nov 21, 2016

Yeshua1 said:
Which verse though?

The term “law” is used in Scripture in several different ways. Care must be taken to make the proper distinctions within the given context. Mark the following uses in Scripture: the entirety of the Word of God (1 Jn. 2:3–4; 3:4). The entire Old Testament (Matt. 5:17–18; Rom. 2:17–20; Heb. 10:1). The Five Books of Moses, or the Pentateuch (Lk. 24:44; Rom. 3:21). The whole Mosaic legislation. Human law or custom (Rom. 7:1–3). Various principles or powers of operation that exist in the created spiritual or moral order of things (Rom. 3:27; 7:21–23; 8:1–3). The Ten Commandments (Ex. 20:1–17). The Moral Law is epitomized in the Decalogue or Ten Commandments, and answers to the law ontologically embedded in man’s nature at creation as the image–bearer of God (Rom. 2:11–16). The Moral Law was neither formulated nor instituted at Sinai; rather, it was codified and epitomized at Sinai in the Decalogue. The Moral Law expresses the moral self–consistency or absolute righteous character of the triune God. The Moral Law was codified as part of the progressively–revealed redemptive purpose (Rom. 5:20–21). [All post–Fall Divine revelation is essentially redemptive in nature]. The Moral Law was revealed to Moses and given to Israel in a codified and epitomized or summary form. Israel, as the covenant people of God, formed the repository of the Divinely revealed and codified Moral Law until the gospel took the true knowledge of God and his moral self–consistency to all the nations of the earth. What is the purpose of the law for the unbeliever?

First, it is revelatory. The Law gives the proper recognition of God. It is primarily a revelation of the Divine nature and character. It is particularly a transcript of the perfect righteousness or moral self–consistency of God and what God requires of man (Ex. 20:1–17; Eccl. 12:13–14; Matt. 22:35–40).

Second, The Law was meant to bring a restraint upon sin (Rom. 2:14–16; 7:7).

Third, The Law also aggravates the unregenerate mind or heart and causes it to both rebel against the commands of God and to lust after that which is forbidden (Rom. 7:7–13).

Fourth, it is the God–ordained medium of conviction of sin (Rom. 3:19–20; 5:20; 7:7–13; 1 Cor. 15:56; Gal. 3:24; 1 Tim. 1:8–11). Finally, it is designed to lead the sinner to Christ (Gal. 3:23–24). [Note that the Gk. perfect tense in Gal. 3:24 ought to be translated “The law was and continues to be our schoolmaster to lead us to Christ…”]. see pt2

Iconoclast · Nov 21, 2016

What is the purpose of the law for the believer?

First, it is his rule of life, not legalistically, but as the objective standard that is fulfilled in the context of grace (Matt. 22:34–40; Rom. 6:14). It must be noted in Rom. 6:14 that the definite article [“the”] does not occur before the word “law” in the Gk. Thus, it refers to a principle of law, i.e., a principle of mere outward command, as contrasted with the inward principle of grace.

Second, it is the essence of the Christian ethic in the context of love (Rom. 13:8–10). As love fulfils the law, so love is defined by law.

Third, the Law is for the believer’s humility (Rom. 7:14–8:4).

Finally, the Law causes the believer to constantly look to and glorify the Person and work of Christ in the context of sovereign grace, as the One who has delivered him from its condemnation (Gal. 3:13; 4:4–5; 6:14, 16; Phil. 3:7–9). A consistent biblical concept of the Moral Law must include both its negative and positive forms, as clearly illustrated in the ministry and teaching of our Lord Jesus Christ. His teaching and that of the inspired Apostles did not set aside the Moral Law, but rather reinforced it (Matt. 5:17–18; 22:36– 40; Rom. 3:19–20, 27–31; 7:7–13; 13:8–10; 1 Tim. 1:5–11).

It is utterly incomprehensible that anyone should set the doctrine of our Lord and the inspired Apostles against the truth and reality of the Moral Law as given in the Old Testament.

Further, the Moral Law in its fullest expression must include the moral commands of our Lord himself and his inspired Apostles. It is thus inclusive of all the moral commands of the Word of God. The Decalogue and the “Two Great Commandments” are only the epitome of the Moral Law, and the best commentary on the Moral Law is the remainder of Scripture.
The terminology the “Law–Word” of God is used throughout this section. By this is meant the Word of God which is in the nature of command or law for man. By this usage we seek to maintain the nature and authority of God’s Word. In the context of God’s Word, we are either in obedience or disobedience.
Quest

JPPT1974 · Nov 21, 2016

Yeah as when we ask for forgiveness. Jesus cleanses us and we need to admit it. Not just with words. But with heart and mind!

Repentance of sin

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