prophecynut
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atestring
You're looking the wrong direction, the smoke is coming from here.
You're looking the wrong direction, the smoke is coming from here.
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Great! Now we're getting somewhere.Originally posted by tamborine lady:
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You know what you are doing. I believe you. But do you honestly know what you are saying?
Matter of fact, I do!! I also have the gift of interpretation!!!
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Bless you,
Tam
All gibberish is, is a string of nonsensical syllables said over and over again. It doesn't make sense even to the wisest of linguists, and not even to God.Originally posted by DHK:
But nonosensical syllables nevertheless. Nonsesical is just that--that which does not make sense--not to man, and not to God.Originally posted by Ed Edwards:
DHK: "All gibberish is, is a string of nonsensical syllables said over and over again."
I respectfully disagree. Gibberish can be non repeated
nonsensical syllables.
DHK: "So, what language do you speak in, when you speak in tongues?"9/QUOTE]
Let's get it straight Ed.Which part of 'unknown tongues' are you having trouble with?
Oh, i remember, you define 'tongues' = known language;
This then gives you the babble that 'unknown tongues' means
'unknown known languages'. Using simple human math thinking, you
end us with 'unknown tongues' = 'language' but the problem is that
you assumed falsely that 'tongues' = known language.
In fact, 'tongues' and especially the KJV 'unknown tongue' means
that YOU DON"W KNOW WHICH LANGUAGE ONE IS SPEAKING.
First, tongues from the Biblical perspective:
In the Bible tongues are always languages--real known foreign languages--always.
They were called unknown because they were unknown to the speaker, but known to the congregation, or at least somenone in the congregation that the speaker was addressing. This is why it was a miraculous sign gift. It is the gift of languagues. If the gift was operative today missionaries would not have to go to language school and learn foreign languages. God would just give them the Biblical gift of tongues instead. But that isn't the case. (I know; I am a missionary, and with great difficulty have had to learn some foreign languages).
Thus the Biblical gift of tongues is always a real foreign langauge, unknown to the speaker, but known to those spoken to.
Modeern Day Tongues (totally unbiblical)
These are not real languages. They are gibberish--nonsensical syllables strung together, which no man can understand, not even God. Nonsense is nonsense. If they are not foreign languages they are not of God. If they cannot be interpreted into another real language that others can understand and be edified thereby, they are not of God.
I asked you to check the Greek. I asked you even to check your own KJV. Is the word "unknwon" in italics or not? Does it not mean that when the word is in italics that the word is not in the Greek, and is inserted by the translators, that is to say, the word doesn't even exist in the Greek.1Co 14:39 (KJV1611 Edition):
Wherefore brethren, couet to prophesie,
and forbid not to speake with tongues.
OF course, your Southern Baptist version says:
1 Corinthians 14:39 (The Holman Christian Standard Bible):
Therefore, my brothers, be eager to prophesy, and
do not forbid speaking in other languages.
But i note this verse is in a chapter that speaks of
'unknown tongues' several times (just not the 1 Co 14:39 time).
Why therefore are you putting so much emphasis on a word that doesn't exist??
Babble is babble is babble.Caveat of the day:
I suspect most tongues i see on TV are NOT
legitimate unknown tongues but are babble;
that most preachers i see on TV are corrupted
by lots of money.
I have not sampled non-TV sources of tongues
enough to make an overall judgement.
You saw in on TV. You see it everywhere. What you don't see today is the original Biblical gift of speaking in "other" foreign languages.
DHK
There are many things we can understand.Originally posted by Sonjeo:
"God cannot do those things which are outside the definitions that man has defined for him to do".
Since man defines things by understanding and God does much beyond our understanding, like the peace He gives, how would this be possible or even wise.You know this is a statement that I would have expected from those who like to say "man dreamed up and created God in his own image. I have to ask; Do we make such a statement by our own understanding? Long before man was created God did plenty and now man just figures out what God can and cannot do, he doesn't define anything for God unless God allows him to. Remember ol'Leroy Brown who you didn't do this or that to, well you don't make statements about God doing only what man has defined for Him to do. It's much a matter of form, you know.![]()
Great! Now we're getting somewhere.Originally posted by DHK:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by tamborine lady:
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You know what you are doing. I believe you. But do you honestly know what you are saying?
Matter of fact, I do!! I also have the gift of interpretation!!!
![]()
![]()
![]()
Bless you,
Tam
Great! Now we're getting somewhere.Originally posted by DHK:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by DHK:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by tamborine lady:
![]()
You know what you are doing. I believe you. But do you honestly know what you are saying?
Matter of fact, I do!! I also have the gift of interpretation!!!
![]()
![]()
![]()
Bless you,
Tam
Are the Corinthians speaking in false tongues or are they using the true gift of tongues in an improper way or a "false use" as you put it? This is important difference. Why would Paul give the Corinthians instructions on the proper use of the gifts of tongues if Paul didn't fully expect the Corinthians to manifest the true gift of tongues? He wouldn't. The fact that Paul did give instructions means that Paul did fully expect the Corinthians to speak in true tongues. If Paul didn't believe that then Paul never would have given them instructions.Originally posted by prophecynut:
Charismatics and Pentecostals realize that there is a difference between the tongues of Acts 2 and what is going on in 1 Corinthians 14. But they explain the difference by saying that there are two kinds of tongues. They say the tongues of Acts 2 are real languages and the tongues of 1 Corinthians 14 refer to an ecstatic, private devotional speech that one speaks in an unknown tongue to God personally and privately for self-edification. They recognize a difference and resolve the difference by saying there are two gifts of tongues.
I also recognize a difference, but I resolve it by seeing the true use of it in Acts 2 and the false use of it in 1 Corinthians 14. First Corinthians 14 doesn't talk about another gift; it talks about a perversion of the intended gift and its mixture with the heathen counterfeit. The Bible doesn't teach that there are two kinds of tongues speaking - one a language and one an ecstatic experience. In fact, the same term describes the gift in Acts 2 and in 1 Corinthians 14. So if God wanted to make a distinction, He would have used another term. It is the same word. It is the normal Greek word for language. There is no reason to justify the selfish use of tongues in 1 Corinthians 14 as if it were some new, special gift.
Both false tongues and the true gift were spoken in the Corinthian church, Paul was instructing them to embrace true tongues and reject false tongues.Originally posted by ChurchBoy:
Are the Corinthians speaking in false tongues or are they using the true gift of tongues in an improper way or a "false use" as you put it?