Featured Does Job 32:8 define the meaning of inspiration at 2 Timothy 3:16?

KJV-only author William Grady asserted that “the first and most critical usage [of the word inspiration] is found in Job 32:8” (Given By Inspiration, p. 90). William Grady contended: “As Job is the oldest book in the Bible, we marvel that the first writer of Scripture ‘just happens’ to record the definitive statement on inspiration” (p. 90).

Concerning 2 Timothy 3:16 and Job 32:8, KJV-only author Jack McElroy also claimed: “Comparing the two helps you understand how the Bible defines the word [inspiration]” (Which Bible Would Jesus Use, p. 241).

 

After citing Job 32:8, Jack McElroy asserted: “According to the Bible, inspiration not only applies to the original autographs but it’s also an ongoing ministry of the Holy Spirit whereby he gives men (including you) understanding of the words of God” (p. 233).

 

Perhaps some KJV-only authors are trying to find another way to try to support their new interpretation of 2 Timothy 3:16 with their appeal to Job 32:8.

Do these two verses use the same word in the same exact sense concerning the same exact subject that would indicate that they should be considered parallel passages? Does the use of the same English word “inspiration” to translate two different words in two different verses in different contexts prove that these two verses are actually both about the same subject--the giving of the Scriptures by inspiration to the prophets and apostles?

Is it clearly demonstrated by KJV-only advocates that the assertion (Job 32:8) made by Elihu is about the same subject of the Scriptures as the verse in 2 Timothy 3:16 is? Does Elihu actually define the meaning of inspiration at 2 Timothy 3:16? Would a possibly more obscure or less clear use of an English word be properly considered the key to understanding a clearer use of that same word? Has it been soundly demonstrated that the Hebrew word used in Job 32:8 has the exact, same meaning as the Greek adjective used in 2 Timothy 3:16? The Greek adjective at 2 Timothy 3:16 is actually translated in the KJV by five words [“given by inspiration of God”], not by one word [inspiration]. Do these KJV-only authors ignore or avoid any consideration of how the same Hebrew word translated “inspiration” at Job 32:8 is translated in over twenty other verses in the KJV’s Old Testament? Could any of the other verses where the same Hebrew word is used contribute to understanding its use at Job 32:8? Would presenting one result of “the inspiration of the Almighty” [“giveth them understanding”] actually provide Elihu’s clear definition of it?

According to the doctrine of Bible inspiration, are all the words stated by Job’s three friends and Elihu true and directly from God or are all their words recorded by inspiration of God as they had stated them regardless of whether they were right or wrong in some of them?

Is Job 32:8 proven soundly to be the key to understanding 2 Timothy 3:16 as these KJV-only authors alleged? Do KJV-only authors truly prove that Job 32:8 presents the “definitive statement on inspiration” of the Scriptures?