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A few Questions about Divorce

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Rev. Lowery, Nov 21, 2005.

  1. Rev. Lowery

    Rev. Lowery New Member

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    bmerr... It just says "she" in verse 12 of Mark 10. I mean, I think, imho it applys to men also But, if we are to take the scripture literal then we must take it as is. I always thought asking for forgiveness was all you needed to do to be forgiven. I guess the question should be, is it the initial act of the marriage thats adultery, or is the marriage itself adultery. Thats a tough one I never really thought about it like that.?.?.?.?

    Rev. Jerry D. Lowery D.D.
     
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    If unrepented sins end up with the person in Hell, then we're all condemned to Hell. Each and every one of us has some unrepented sins.
     
  3. Rev. Lowery

    Rev. Lowery New Member

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    And I totally agree Johnv


    Rev. Jerry D. Lowery D.D.
     
  4. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    Hope,

    bmerr here. I looked up both words, and they seem to mean the same thing. I had never heard of "polygyny". Both have to do with having multiple wives/mates. Either that or something about hermaphroditic flowers...

    Although polygamy was practiced by some of the OT saints, it was not the pattern God set up. In Matt 19:4, "Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female", (as opposed to "males and female", or "male and females").

    I'll get into this more in response to steaver.

    I don't know if "spiritually dead" is the right term to use or not. Continuing in willful sin puts one in danger of hell, since he has transgressed the doctrine of Christ, and is thus without God.

    The guilty party may be forgiven by God and man, but the consequence of breaking the marriage vow is ineligibility to marry another. One could be reconciled to the faithful party, if that one allowed it. This would be the best thing all the way around, IMO, except, of course, faithfulness.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  5. Hope of Glory

    Hope of Glory New Member

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    "Polygyny" is specifically a man with multiple wives, whereas "polygamy" simply means a person with multiple spouses.

    Unless I'm badly mistaken, the Bible never uses the word adulterer to refer to a man, unless he sleeps with another man's wife, however, a married woman who sleeps with another man is an adulteress.

    But, as far as adulterers go, What's supposed to happen to them?
     
  6. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    steaver,

    bmerr here. You asked about David and Moses. I asked about David myself. Let's look at him first.

    When God referred to David as "a man after mine own heart", David had not yet been annointed king (1 Sam 13:14). Of course, this would be early on in David's life, before the temptations of life as a king assailed him.

    But even after David's death, Ahijah the prophet sends word to Jeroboam, saying, "...and yet thou hast not been as my servant David, who kept my commandments, and who followed me with all his heart, to do that only which was right in mine eyes" (1 Kings 14:8).

    We both know that David had multiple wives, and that his adultery with Bathsheba, and murder of Uriah, her husband, occurred between these two testimonies concerning David. We also both know that polygamy, adultery and murder are not part of God's commandments.

    So how is it that after David's death, he is still said to have followed God with all his heart?

    The best I can figure, and I'm liable to be wrong, is that when David was confronted with his sin, he repented. Nathan's visit is a good example. We both know the story.

    As far as Moses is concerned, Jesus explains the situation as well as it can be explained. The verse you cited was Matt 19:7-8, I believe. It reads,

    7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

    8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

    From what I've been told, the women were being mistreated by their husbands for the slightest imperfection. To suffer (allow) the men to put away their wives was for the benefit of the women. [I've noticed that God's laws have always improved conditions for women, in both Old and New Testaments.]

    Jesus goes on to say that divorce had not been a part of God's plan from the beginning. Deut 24:1-4 is the Scripture the Pharisees referred to. Moses wrote by inspiration, so the provision for divorce had Divine sanction, but it was not in the original plan.

    I don't think Moses was condemned for allowing it.

    I hope this helps.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  7. steaver

    steaver Well-Known Member
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    Can you provide one passage of scripture that states a Christian must be willing to forgive?

    Forgiveness has nothing to do with the offender asking for it even though that can be part of the process in human cases. Many times my wife or kids ask me to forgive them and 9 times out of 10 I am able to tell them I already have. Forgiveness is an act triggered not from an outside act of another but from the compassion in one's own heart, regardless whether or not the offender asked for it or deserves it.

    While we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. The entire world. All sin will be forgiven mankind except for blasphemy of the Holy Ghost. The only requirement for salvation is faith in Jesus Christ and His work alone! The only thing a person in hell will remember is that they refused to believe, not that they shouldn't have sinned so much.

    Rest assured brother that your response has not hurt my feelings nor made me angry. You have demonstrated exactly what the Pharisees were doing. They preached the letter of the law but totally missed the spirit of the law.

    Your response has only weakened your position. You place obedience over God's sovereignty to give grace and mercy apart from any works of righteousness from our part. Works of righteousness would be God granting salvation because of what we precieve to be obedience to His commands. I say precieve because most people think they are being obedient when in reallity they are as guilty as everyone else almost hourly of sin. When one begins to believe that their obedience is part of their salvation then salvation becomes nothing more than a religion and the cross of Christ is no longer the center focus, self becomes the center. I must, I must, I must, rather than You alone Lord are my salvation.

    You misuse the scriptures in many post. Repent means turn or change your mind. In the case of salvation we are told to repent from unbelief. You add your own qualifiers by saying repentance "from sin". It doesn't say from sin, you had to add that. Just like you added "willing" to forgive. It does not say "willing" anywhere. It says "from your heart forgive".

    As far as my questions about David and Moses, you had no answer. David, Abraham and most all of God's servants had concubines throughout their lives and you want to assume that they somehow repented of them before they died even though the scriptures give no inclination of any such thing. This is fairytale reasoning. David died with multiple wives and concubines. According to your wisdom about marriage you must conclude that Abraham and David are in hell. It is very clear that your counsel is in grave error.

    As far as my situation goes, if your were right and I must destroy my wife and children in exchange for salvation, then I must choose the well being of my family over myself, because I am not going to tear them apart. I guess Jesus will have to send me to hell for not being willing to harm two of His children.

    I had a friend once, haven't seen him in probably ten years now, he had a preacher who preached like you do. Boy did that preacher mess up his life. He had a nervess breakdown and was just torn apart inside over this marriage business. He spent several months in a mental hospital. I know that someone looking in from the outside would want nothing to do with Jesus Christ if He was that unmerciful to His own children. It was sad indeed.

    I knew my questions would result in one of two things. Either you would see the error in your teaching and repent or you would post as you did declaring our Lord to be unmerciful and salvation something to be earned rather than a gift of grace. I hoped for repentance but your answers has shown others just what it means to be a faith plus works preacher/teacher. It was a win/win debate from my position and this is why I presented it. I hope others will see the error of your presentation and i pray you will as well brother.

    God Bless! [​IMG]
     
  8. Rev. Lowery

    Rev. Lowery New Member

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    Apparently where I live the God they worship doesn’t forgive divorce. Where I, on the other hand believe once saved you are a new man physically and spiritually. If your both Christian's there is never a reason to divorce prayer and love should carry you through. If one is saved and one is not and either commits adultery and divorce. The guilty party should not remarry because they would be committing and causing to commit adultery. The innocent party is how ever free to remarry.

    But, If ,and this is my opinion, the lost person/persons commits the adultery and remarries and is then later saved all there sins are forgiven and they are made as white as snow and pure in the eyes of God. Here’s what we run in to though, Is the marriage itself adultery and if yes does God forgive the marriage and upon acceptance of Christ make it right as well. I say yes my god and my Jesus forgives all sin, except blasphemy against the holy spirit. If its the saved person that commits the adultery God still forgives there sin as well. 1 Timothy 3 speaks against polygamy.


    Rev. Jerry D. Lowery D.D.

    [ December 12, 2005, 02:58 PM: Message edited by: Rev. Lowery ]
     
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