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Top Three Bible translations

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by alexander284, Feb 28, 2020.

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  1. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Not sure what you are talking about. There is no footnote on Esther 4:5
     
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  2. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    I was obviously speaking of the many occurrences within translations of these kind of footnotes. But there is indeed a footnote for that reference in the NET Bible.
     
  3. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You are all over the place. Might I add that I find it interesting how you bash people who disagree with your point of view because they are overly subjective on Bible translations when, in fact, you are the same way yourself. You have no idea what you are talking about in many cases on these threads just throwing in pure conjecture. You are welcome to your opinions, but don't portray them as the absolute way things are when it is demonstrably false.
     
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  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Be very careful that you do not get tagged as being a Niv "hater", and get on his bad side!
     
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  5. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I couldn't. Because I use and enjoy the NIV as well as the NLT.
     
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  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I use the 1984 Niv, not the 2011,so still am "hater"by Him!
     
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  7. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    On any given thread a wide variety of things are brought up. So anyone participated has to keep up. Perhaps you are lagging behind?

    But normally the phrase of "being all over the place" means vacillating on a particular issue. I have been consistent, so I think you are confused.

    You had said there was no footnote for Esther 4:5. That was kind of a ill-considered remark because you obviously can't speak for most translations. I pointed out that the NET had a footnote for that verse. But you didn't feel inclined to acknowledge your ill-founded remark.

    If you had paid closer attention to my post #76, you would not have said such a silly thing. In that post I was not referencing one translation in particular; I was speaking of the fact that most translations have footnotes. Many translations state that in Hebrew it says this or that. Therefore, the translators felt that which was in the footnotes should not be in the text. What is rendered in the text suffices because on many occasions what the footnotes states is awkward, or wordy, or unnecessary. Lots of times it's just biblish.
     
  8. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    "Hater [sic] by Him. Are you speaking of God?
     
  9. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You said in my favorite translations. And that is incorrect, my favorite translations do not footnote that verse as you say on Esther 4:5.
     
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  10. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    I was emphasizing the principle that nearly all translations have these alternatives in the footnotes. I wasn't referencing one particular translation, or one particular passage.
     
  11. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    :rolleyes::confused:
     
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  12. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    @Rippon2 so what was quoting yourself supposed to accomplish?
     
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  13. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    To reiterate what you were clearly not comprehending.
     
  14. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Oh no, I comprehended exactly what you said. Read the FLOW of the conversation, then read your quote. You responded directly to me, we were discussing Esther 4:5 specifically, then you said MY FAVORITE TRANSLATIONS include a footnote that says "hebrew says etc...." which they do not. May not have been what you meant, but it is definitely what you said, and to belittle me because I understood what you actually said, and not what you may or may not have meant, is ridiculous.
     
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  15. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Actually, Rippon notwithstanding, it is not a dictionary that decides if a word or phrase is offensive. That is decided by how people use it. In linguistics, such terms are called taboo words. All of the terms you have mentioned are considered taboo words because they are offensive to a wide variety of people, including probably the vast majority of those who frequent the BB (including me).

    Here is a definition: “a word known to speakers but avoided in some, most, or all forms or contexts of speech, for reasons of religion, decorum, politeness, etc.” (P. H. Matthews, Oxford Concise Dictionary of Linguistics, 2nd ed. (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007), 400.)
     
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  16. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Do you also find "God forbid" to be taboo?
     
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  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Glad to see that others can see thru some of your bluster in regards to the Niv 2011!
     
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  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No, yourself!
     
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  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    this is why not always wise to literally translate into English certain words , as think old Kjv used "piss" in a passage, but not same in modern versions!
     
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  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Sometimes I wonder if I am not the only one here that has a "comprehension problem"
     
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