Featured Any Here Hold that we are not born with a sin nature?

Can't speak for anyone else. I believe in total hereditary depravity, that is, that every human being inherits depravity (or a sin nature) from our father Adam, and that it totally infects us so that man cannot right himself.

 

I hold same view.

 

And God blesseth them, and God saith to them, 'Be fruitful, and multiply, and fill the earth, and subdue it, and rule over fish of the sea, and over fowl of the heavens, and over every living thing that is creeping upon the earth.' Gen 1:28

Did that command become sin and or sinful?

Lo, in iniquity I have been brought forth, And in sin doth my mother conceive me. Ps 51:5

 

I hold to human depravity not total depravity. We have a sin nature but not guilty of Adams sin. We are only guilty of our own sin.

 

I understand the view, but I have no idea how you reconcile it to scripture.

 

What tradition fails to acknowledge is the cause of the sin nature is the divine "knowledge of good and evil," Genesis 3:22, ". . . And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: . . ." And one of the reasons the incarnation did not cause Jesus to have a sin nature was that was also part of His divine nature being the Son of God, Mark 10:18, Hebrews 4:15.

 

that it might be fulfilled
a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth

Would, "fulfilled," have been from before the foundation of the world? I believe yes. Before the foundation of the world, a virgin would conceive and a virgin would bring forth. 1 Peter 1:19,20

And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

A. Had Joseph known her before she brought forth, what nature, would the child have been brought forth with?
B. Would he have been brought forth in iniquity?
C. Would he have been conceived in sin?

My answers.
A. sinful
B. yes
C. no

 

The cause of the sin nature is not divine knowledge of good and evil, but the disobedience of Adam in defying God's reveled will.

[Rom 5:19 ESV] 19 For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous.

 

Making things up, you are not making any good sense.
Genesis 3:15, Isaiah 7:14 was fulfilled. What was before the foundation of the world, 1 Peter 1:20, John 17:24.

 

Unbelief. Genesis 2:17, ". . . the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: . . ." Genesis 3:22, ". . . the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: . . ." Did God lie? Did not Adam disobey? God is infinitly good. Man is finite and was made good. God cannot sin, man did sin by disobeying, causing all his descendants to become sinful. What knowledge did he cause his descendants to inherit?

 

I wish you had included my complete post. You left out the verse supporting my position.

 

Are you denying the knowledge of good and evil causes man to be sinful? Are you denying the knowledge of good and evil is God's knowledge?

 

I am affirming that sin is the result of disobeying the revealed will of God.

Lucifer committed the first recorded sin when he, a created being, said:
[Isa 14:13-14 ESV]..... 'I will ascend to heaven; above the stars of God I will set my throne on high; I will sit on the mount of assembly in the far reaches of the north; 14 I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will make myself like the Most High.'

(note: also first expression of self-will, some might say free-will, the lie started by Lucifer.)

Are you denying the following scripture?:
[Rom 5:19 ESV] 19 For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous.

 

My explanation I gave affrims Romans 5:19.

Let me get your view correct, are you saying man's sinful nature is the inheritance of disobedience?

 

Yes, the disobedience of Adam.

What is the sin nature? | GotQuestions.org
"The Bible explains the reason for the trouble. Humanity is sinful, not just in theory or in practice but by nature. Sin is part of the very fiber of our being. The Bible speaks of “sinful flesh” in Romans 8:3. It’s our “earthly nature” that produces the list of sins in Colossians 3:5. And Romans 6:6 speaks of “the body ruled by sin.” The flesh-and-blood existence we lead on this earth is shaped by our sinful, corrupt nature."

 

Well Jesus had to learn obededience, Hebrews 5:7-8.

 

I’m not understanding?

At what point is one who is depraved not totally?

Just because one may know there is a North Star, and even can find it on a cloudless night, doesn’t mean that person is not totally lost and stumbling without light in a cave.

Perhaps you think of the unsaved as slipping into or sinking into depravity?

Is it not rather the estate of one already judged awaiting the executioner or is it one is still in the courtroom pleading not guilty?

Dwelling in darkness (cave) the execution date set has what more than total depravation?

Could you give something to illustrate your thinking in contrast so I might understand how you arrive at “human depravity not total depravity?”

 

Does this mean we are born sinless?

 

Man's sin nature is a direct result of Adam breaking the covenant he had with God. Humanity now falls under the curse of that broken covenant.

God is a covenant making God.