The eternal subordination of the Word.

I don't think that you really know yourself what you are on about? Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, The Great I AM, YHWH. He also has other Names by which He is known, like "The Word", and in these passages in Revealtion, "The Lamb", as of His Sacrifice for the sins of the human race. The texts that I have shown from Revelation, show that both Jesus Christ, here as "The Lamb", and "God" as in the Father, are JOINT RULERS, as they share the one Throne and have the same power and authority, which makes them BOTH COEQUAL. Therefore there can be NO "subordination" between the Father and Jesus Christ.

 

Of course. But the question is....did He set aside His glory primarily to become flesh, or was the greater purpose to become the Suffering Servant?

I believe it's the latter. Because it was through His suffering that glory and honor were bestowed upon Him

 

to "become flesh", is when the Eternal Logos took upon Himself the "nature" of humans (sin excepted), while He remained to be Almighty God. This was an "emptying of Himself" of the Glory and Equality that He had from eternity with the Father (John 17:5). I think that it is better worded, not, "did He set aside His glory primarily to become flesh", but, "did He set aside His glory primarily when He became flesh", which is yes.

 

The way you reworded my question, then answered, does not answer my question

 

you said, "did He set aside His glory primarily to become flesh, or was the greater purpose to become the Suffering Servant?". I answered, # 23, which is very simple to understand. read it again.

 

there won't be much discussion on this, as this is a false theory!

 

Where does scripture say the Word of God is uncaused?

 

It is a statement of equality. Being “with” God was to be “face to face” with God. That is a statement of equality. Saying He “was God” is saying He possessed all the attributes of Deity, another statement of equality.

This is not a statement of subordination, even though I tend to believe the concept of eternal subordination.

There is perfect unity within the Godhead. There is no “power struggle” as to which person of the Trinity will “be in charge”.

Each person has specific roles in the application of God’s perfect will and plan.

peace to you

 

Jesus is the Great I AM (John 8:58) which is what He tells Moses in Exodus 3:14-15, where He says, "I am Who I am", and then says that His Name is YHWH. The Hebrew root for the Name YHWH, is literally, "eternal, unchanging, uncreated". This is absolute proof that Jesus Christ is, "THE SAME, yesterday, and today and forever" (Hebrews 13:8)!

 

your title for this thread is, "The eternal subordination of the Word", and you have not provided a single Scripture that even suggests this???

 

based on exactly what Scripture? There is not even ONE in the OT or NT that even suggests this!

 

Why do you think the Word would have to be created in order to have a cause?

 

John 5:19 Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.

That seems to suggest subordination. So does this one...

John 5:30 “I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.