Featured Silly translation.

in case you didn't know, καί is usually used to "join words and sentences". Carrying on from verse 14. bear in mind in the originals there are no chapters and verses! had δέ been used, it would have been different.

 

Which is not silly at all!

 

I am sure that you mean "silliness"

 

but it was you in the OP that made this rather bold statement, "Now the first word ανδρες alway is addressing men, never women", which is incorrect!

 

(1) The conjunction “AND” with its greatest understanding certainly denotes a continuing thought.
At its least it signals an end of the previous sentence and the beginning of another (like our period mark.).

(2) Translation methods are a point of debate. Personally I encourage readers of Scripture to consult many different versions for the very reason that sometimes varying translation methods can clarify and bring out meanings that a single source cannot.

(3) Now “immutability” is a topic that you alone have brought up.
Pardon me but don’t be so high-minded to think that your opinion is the only correct way to think and so you are arguing God’s truth.
Nowhere is immutability an issue in this discussion, both are opinions, viewpoints, (unless you take the position that translations are fully re-inspired by God).

(4) Follow out the opinion that “Men and brothers” is the only way the phrase should be translated...does that mean women are excluded from fellowship?

Rob

 

What resource are you using for your CSB? A quick look shows that 15:7 and 15:13 do not include "and sisters" since the 2020 revision.

 

I disagree. I am going with standard Greek pedagogy. I checked a half dozen lexicons, and none of them had your opinion in them. Plus, I've translated the entire NT from Greek to Japanese, and many books into English, and did not find a single instance where ἀνηρ meant anything but male.

So, you prove your own unsupported theory, please.

 

Romans 4.8 is a good example where it is used to include both sexes. There is no other way to take this

 

As is James 1.20

 

Sure there is. It is the generic usage of the word. It does not indicate females.

 

Same thing--the generic usage. Don't project 21st century feministic linguistics into the male-dominated 1st century society.

 

This is what Dr Edward Robinson says in his Greek lexicon

Inset. A man, i.e. one of the human race, a person. And gives a few Scripture references including Romans 4.8 and James 1.20

 

Generic means BOTH men and women. You should know that! And you are a Bible translator!