Featured The New Jewish Publication Society Tanakh

What is the proposed day and year that Christ was crucified?

 

JPS Isaiah 7:14, "Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel"

The Hebrew הָעַלְמָ֗ה is "The Virgin", and not "The young woman", who might, or might not be a "Virgin". Matthew who wrote unter the guidance of the Holy Spirit, uses the Greek, "ἡ παρθένος", which is "The Virgin", and not "ἡ νεᾶνις". This corruption by the Jews, to remove the Testimony to the Virgin Conception of Jesus Christ, dates from the 2nd century AD, where the 3 Greek Old Testaments after the LXX, by Aquila, Symmachus, and Theodoret, read, "ἡ νεᾶνις". the LXX which was completed in the 1st century BC, reads, "ἡ παρθένος".

JPS Isaiah 9:6, "For a child has been born to us, A son has been given us. And authority has settled on his shoulders.
He has been named "The Might God is planning grace; The Eternal Father, a peaceable ruler". The words "is planning grace", are not represented in the Hebrew. The exact Hebrew, אֵל גִּבּוֹר is in chapter 10, verse 21, where the JPS translates it, "Mighty God". Why when it refers to Jesus Christ, it is paraphrased, and when to Yahweh (the Father), it is literal?

JPS Isaiah 48:16, "And now the Lord God has sent me, endowed with His spirit". There is no "endowed with" in the Hebrew text. In a footnote, JPS reads, "and His spirit". The Speaker in this passage is Yahweh, Who is clearly the Lord Jesus Christ. He is sent by another Who is also "Yahweh", Who also sends "the Spirit". The clearest passage in the Old Testament for the Doctrine of the Holy Trinity.

Three important Doctrinal passages that have been corrupted by the Jews.

 

Matthew, whose Gospel is Inspired by God the Holy Spirit, very rightly transleted the Hebrew הָעַלְמָ֗ה as The Virgin, unless you are saying that Matthew is wrong? The Hebrew בְּתוּלָה does not mean "virgin", as passages like Joel 1:8, show that it is used for a married woman. Further, if בְּתוּלָה did mean "virgin", then there would be no reason to qualify this with, Genesis 24:16, "and the damsel was very fair to look upon, a virgin (בְּתוּלָה), neither had any man known her...". Leviticus 21:3, "And for his sister a virgin (בְּתוּלָה), that is nigh unto him, which had no husband...". Judges 21:12, "and they found among the inhabitants of Jabesh-gilead, four hundred young virgin (בְּתוּלָה), that had known no man, by lying with any male...". Not ONE passage in the Old Testament, where the Hebrew הָעַלְמָ֗ה is used, does it mean not a "virgin".

 

I find it hard putting anymore trust in a so-called "Jewish" translation than I would a Jehovah's witness' version. The Jews hate Christ with a passion and exist as a body on account of it.

 

Do you accept and read the Old testament, as that was and are Jewish books!