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Each Eschatological view.

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by 37818, Nov 21, 2021.

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  1. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    I do not see a difficulty. Compare 2 Peter 3:8-13 in regards to Revelation 20 - Revelation 21. Same type of issues. Seeing it from a far versus seeing the details.
     
  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Matthew 24:30, ". . . they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds . . . ."
     
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  3. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Sure, J & the temple were soon destroyed, but the rest hasn't yet happened.
     
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  4. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    You'll hafta ask Jesus.

    Also, please closely check out the meanings of the Greek "genea". It can also mean 'a people' Jesus could've meant that the Jewish people wouldn't pass away. After all, the prophesied eschatological events haven't yet occurred.
     
  5. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    If you spend time on what Jesus taught, Amillennialism tweaked with Baptist church polity is the only valid position.
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    As a fundamentalist Baptist, premillennial second coming of Christ was in both churches that when I had joined, in their statement of faith.
     
  7. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    you ignore what was posted...you leave out the SIGN OF THE SON OF MAN IN HEAVEN.
     
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  8. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    just bumping
     
  9. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    No. I do not agree with the denial of what I quoted in Matthew 24:30. The actual event is the sign.
     
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  10. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    "They" refers to those 1st century believers. Consider what Jesus told His disciples in Matthew 16:27-28 "Some of you standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom". Some argue that this refers to the Transfiguration, but that was only a few days away. None of them would have died. Others argue this refers to the far distant future when all of them would have died. Neither of these arguments make sense. Forty years after He spoke this prophecy, some had died, and some were still living when they saw (understood) that Jesus came in judgment on Jerusalem in AD 70.
     
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  11. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    Then we would also need to ask Him why ALL the other times He used the phrase "this generation", He meant just what it normally means - the people He was speaking to, not a future generation. The "genea" argument doesn't wash either. Again, it didn't mean "race" in Matthew 11:16, Matthew 12:41-45, Matthew 22:36, or anywhere else. There are those who insist upon a "literal" translation - until the literal translation trips up their views. Words can't mean what they never meant.
     
  12. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    But the fact still remains that the prophesied eschatological events did NOT happen in that generation. Nothing can get you past that ig ole bear of a FACT.
     
  13. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Some Scriptures are clear. Hebrews 9:12, 1 Corinthians 15:52, Hebrews 9:28, 1 Thessalonians 4:17 and Revelation 20:6. To list a few.
    A once and for all.
    The last trumpet.
    The second appearing.
    For ever being with the Lord.
    The first resurrection.

    Arguing that I am wrong does not show me so. If I cannot reconcile what I know to be true with your claims, I am going to believe what I know.
     
    #153 37818, Nov 24, 2021
    Last edited: Nov 24, 2021
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  14. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    Actually, you cannot overcome the fact that Jesus said - and meant - "this generation", not some future generation. The only options are 1) Jesus lied; 2) Jesus was mistaken; or 3) those events did happen just as He said they would.
     
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  15. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The more I have studied this, the more I understand how the post trib pre wrath view is true.
     
  16. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    I don't disagree with you on most of those passages. I also look forward to Christ's 2nd Coming. I still believe the 1,000 years of Revelation 20:6 to be symbolic. I believe 1 Thessalonians 4:17 points to our resurrection, not to a rapture (which I do not believe in). Clearly, there are many things we will not know this side of Heaven.
     
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  17. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    1 Thessalonians 4:17, ". . . shall be caught up . . . ." The Greek αρπαγησομεθα to the Latin with a transliteration to English for our word "rapture."
     
  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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  19. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    Yes, I know that is where we get the word "rapture" from, but I disagree with the "rapture" doctrine. Traditionally, 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 has been interpreted to refer to the General Resurrection and the 2nd Coming. Verse 17 tells us that after the dead are resurrected, those who are alive, will from that time forward get to be with Jesus and the resurrected forever. At Jesus’ “coming” or “appearing,” those who are still alive will be “changed” or “transformed” so that their mortal bodies will become incorruptible, deathless. This is all that Paul intends to say here.
     
  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    We disagree. Again I am of the persuasion only what Jesus said in Matthew 24:1-2 refers to 70AD. What Jesus answered His disciples in Matthew ,24 was about His second appearing. Hebrews 9:28. Not 70AD.
     
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