Wicked or Ungodly?

The Hebrew word (transliterated) "rasa" appears more than 200 times in the OT. Frequently it is translated as "wicked." But is "wicked" too narrow a term, suggesting overtly cruel action? I say yes, and the actual idea is a reference to those not striving to follow the will of God, both men and women. I know that in Greek, the gender does not require that the subject be limited to that gender. Thus a masculine verb could describe the action of both men and women. I expect that same is true of Hebrew, but do not know whether it is or not.

Other words translated in the OT as ungodly refer to being unjust or worthless.

 

What I asserted was the Greek gender does not necessarily refers to men only because it is in the masculine. Then I asked if wicked (H7563) in the Hebrew also can refer to men and women. I take it the answer is yes.

Looking at Deuteronomy 25:2 I find "rasa" in a Hebrew form that is translated as wicked men. But I am asking if grammar allows it to be translated wicked person. Ditto for Psalm 109:6.

 

Thanks

Thus the masculine gender in the Hebrew also does not necessarily need to refer to men. People or party or person can be used if context points in that direction.

So rather than wicked man, the intended message could be ungodly person.

 

OTHER WORDS FOR wicked
1 unrighteous, ungodly, godless, impious, profane, blasphemous; immoral, profligate, corrupt, depraved, dissolute; heinous; infamous, villainous.

Thus a person who says "I will pray for you" but does not give his coat is not necessarily wicked but is ungodly.

 

This fault finder can find fault where none exists. Cruel and wicked are similar but not the same.

 

But they grow together, rather than apart.

Has anyone addressed the idea of translating the Hebrew word (H7563) usually as "ungodly" rather than wicked? Of course not as our posters are seldom helpful but often cruel, wicked and ungodly.

 

Note how once again this attack dog has derailed a thread, addressing the poster and not the position.

 

The Hebrew word (transliterated) "rasa" appears more than 200 times in the OT. Frequently it is translated as "wicked." But is "wicked" too narrow a term, suggesting overtly cruel action? I say yes, and the actual idea is a reference to those not striving to follow the will of God, both men and women. I know that in Greek, the gender does not require that the entity or object being described be limited to that gender. Thus a masculine Greek word could describe of both men and women. I expect that same is true of Hebrew, but do not know whether it is or not.

Other words translated in the OT as ungodly refer to being unjust or worthless.

** OP edited to correct error as brought to light by JOJ.