Featured Some Comparisons of our English Translations.

It is a mistake to suppose that a Greek word can always be translated by one English word. Greek has a much smaller vocabulary than English, so the same Greek word often has a variety of meanings.
To take just one word, teleo is translated as 'finish' in John 19:30. 100 years ago, a liberal theologian suggested that this meant that Jesus realised that God wasn't going to rescue Him and that His whole ministry had been mistaken. However, teleo is translated as 'perform' in Luke 2:39, 'accomplish' in Luke 22:37; John 19:28, and perhaps most significantly, 'pay' in Matthew 17:24. All of these meanings are relevant to John 19:30.

Also, the noun, teleios, frequently translated 'perfect,' in the KJV, would often be better rendered as 'mature.' as in Ephesians 4:13, or 'complete,' which the KJV does not use. In Hebrews 5:14, teleios is translated as 'of full age' which is obviously better than 'perfect.' but maybe not as good as 'mature.'

 

Did anyone say that anyone said that a Greek word can only have one meaning? Nope!
Was the OP quoted in post #2? Nope!
Was Van's name even mentioned? Nope!
Does Van have hyper-sensitivity problem? Yep!

Not hogwash at all.

There was a ritual to be performed according to the Mosaic law and sacrifices made (Luke 2::22-24). Therefore, although I don't object to the NASB translation, I think the KJV is slightly better.

There is no doubt that 'it is accomplished' would be the better translation since it expresses the meaning somewhat better. As I pointed out in post #2, 'It is finished' could be construed as a cry of defeat rather than of victory, as in 'it's all over for me now!' If I were into paraphrases, which I'm not, 'I've done it!' would express the meaning quite well.
Also, IMO it would be good to see 'it is paid,' not as the text, but as a marginal reading, since that is within the semantic range, and our Surety had paid in full the debt His people owed.

 

Not 'everybody else' Van. You meant many other translations. Translations aren't people.

You need to document your source, because you didn't come up with this yourself. You need to identify the author of the study.

In addition, this topic is in the wrong forum. It obviously needs to be in the Bible Translation forum.

 

Van, who wrote the study/ You didn't name the source; otherwise you are showing your lack of integrity as you have in the past. What harm can befall you by being honest?

 

Joseph and Mary were not completing a mission in Luke 2:23-24; they were performing a ceremony prescribed in the Mosaic law.

No. It portrays the intended meaning more clearly. The Lord Jesus had a mission to fulfil, and there, at the ninth hour, He had achieved or accomplished it. He had also finished it, but because something can be finished either well or badly, I think accomplished is better.

No it doesn't]

This point doesn't appear to trouble you when you come up with your nutty mistranslations. Why do you think it should trouble me when I make a legitimate point?

Translating teleo as 'pay' is found not only in Matthew 17:24, but also Romans 13:6. I wonder how many people on this board were actually aware of that. Why do you want to keep them in the dark about it? I have taken the trouble to look up teleo in Liddell & Scott, the leading secular ancient Greek lexicon, and the use is quite common outside the NT, but particularly with reference to paying bills,debts or taxes. The Lord Jesus paid for us the debt of our sins. Archaeologists have found a number of shipping accounts or bills of lading from Roman times, with the word tetelestai written over them. That was the very word that our Lord used in John 20, the Perfect Passive of teleo: "It is finished; it has been paid in full." Speaking of payment in full, have you ever considered why the Lord Jesus would not drink the wine mixed with myrrh on the cross (Mark 15:23)?
'Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements [NKJV margin, 'certificate of debt'] that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.' And on it is stamped tetelestai, 'Paid in full!' So when we pray, "Forgive us our debts" (Matthew 6:12) we know that God will hear us because the Lord Jesus Christ has already settled them.
So while I am not suggesting that 'it is paid' should be in the main text of Bible translations of John 19:30, I do think it should be given in the margin to show that it is a legitimate rendering.

 

Perhaps this might possibly be the source of this study--Andi Wu and the Global Bible Initiative

http://csbible.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/01/Quantitative-Translation-Evaluation-by-GBI.pdf

 

I actually addressed this issue several weeks ago when preaching through John. You are indeed correct.

It is not just Liddell & Scott that testify to τελέω being used to pay off debt, taxes or a transaction. BDAG, EDNT, AMG, Barclay and the TDNT also speak of this.



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This is purely your view, given without any proof whatsoever.
Why do you wish to hide from the readers of your fantasy Bible translation the fact that teleo can mean 'pay'?

 

What are the qualifications of van again to be able to render decisions on textual criticism and rendering choices?

 

Good question. No doubt he'll tell us shortly.

 

Did I say that you hid the fact that teleo can mean 'pay'? Nope.
What I accused you of was wishing to hide it from others in your fantasy translation.