Featured How Christ Was "Made Sin"

The answer is simple. Jesus took the punishment for OUR sins.

 

In my post #8, I asked a question.

Since no one has come back to me with an answer, I'll give you mine.
Wine mixed with myrrh is an analgesic. It was the one tiny morsel of kindness in the whole brutal affair of crucifixion. It gave just a miniscule amount of relief from the terrible agony that the one crucified would suffer. Surely no one could object to our Lord availing Himself of that crumb of comfort?
But the Lord Jesus was not suffering for Himself; He was standing surety (Hebrews 7:22) for the sins of His people and giving satisfaction to the outraged justice of God. He must drink the cup of God's wrath against sin down to the very dregs (Psalms 75:8; Matthew 26:42) so that we sinners who trust in Him and in His finished work of propitiation will be made the very righteousness of God in Him. Therefore voluntarily, He refuses the drink so that His people may receive such a great salvation.

 

Exactly when, "τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν," did that take place?

What is the result of, sin, ἁμαρτίαν?

Did he remain under the result of being made sin?

Where did, the iniquity of us all, from him go or did it?

When and how?

 

Shortly before His crucifixion. Spurgeon suggests that it was at Gethsemane when, 'He began to be sorrowful and deeply distressed' (Matthew 26:37-38) as He felt the awful weight of sin bearing down upon Him.

'The wages of sin is death' but of course, 'After this, the judgment' (Hebrews 9:27).

Until the 'ninth hour' when Jesus knew that 'All things were now accomplished' and declared, "It is finished!" (Or 'accomplished' or 'paid').

Away. The same place as the scapegoat carried the sins of the Israelites (Leviticus 16:21-22).[/QUOTE]

 

Forgive me, but I see no 100% semantic equivalent between the Hebrew and the Greek for "sin offering." It is rare that a single religious word has complete semantic equivalence with a single word in another language. In this case, the LXX translators did not necessarily mean complete semantic equivalent between the Hebrew and Greek, but simply used what they thought was the best Greek word they had. Example: the one English (or Greek) word "justify" in the Japanese Bible must be three words, gi to mitomeru (義と認める).

Look at Hebrews 10:18, where we have προσφορὰ περὶ ἁμαρτίας, three words to say "offering for sin," including separate words for "offering" and "for" and "sin." In fact, back in Hebrews 10:8 we have ὁλοκαυτώματα (accusative) for "burnt offering," then following that περὶ ἁμαρτίας, indicating another offering, a sin offering, following the context of a burnt offering, and using two words for "sin offering" with "offering" being in italics in the KJV.

In Hebrew, on the other hand, there are separate words for "sin offering" (חטּאה) and just "offering" (מנחה), and that is different from Greek.

 

Concerning 1 Cor. 5:21, it has to be translated "sin" because that's what the original says--not "sin offering." What are the ramifications of that? I like what my favorite NT commentator says, A. T. Robertson, who wrote, "The words 'to be' are not in the Greek. 'Sin' here is the substantive, not the verb. God 'treated as sin' the one 'who knew no sin.' But he knew the contradiction of sinners (Heb 12:3). We may not dare to probe too far into the mystery of Christ's suffering on the Cross, but this fact throws some light on the tragic cry of Jesus just before he died: 'My God, My God, why didst thou forsake me?' (Mt 27:46)."

 

A) True, and that is a peculiarity of the Hebrew. Paul did not write 2Corinthians 5 in Hebrew.
You would have to show the identical phenomenon in Greek.

B) Even if one could show that in Greek, it still would not automatically follow that that must be the intended sense.

A) The notion that the Septuagint is a BC translation is a canard that must die once and for all.
The Septuagint is an AD work that sought to retro-actively harmonize NT quotes of the OT and references to the OT with some supposed OT text that was being quoted and referenced.

B) The notion that it was common in Paul's day, again, does not automatically derive.

In the absence of evidence, the sense stands: he was made sin, not "sin offering".
Again I say, the sense matches his physical transformation on the cross to match Moses' serpent and a worm.

And yes, that is a heavy doctrine, And who is sufficient for these things?

 

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So you tell me, the death, is the result of sin . What was Jesus the Christ raised out of by the resurrection? From whence was Christ resurrected per Acts 2:31?

Exactly how long did Jesus himself say he would be dead? Is Hades the realm of the living or the dead?

It appears to me when Jesus said, "My God, My God why has thou forsaken (g1459 ἐγκατέλιπες ( From ἐν (G1722) and καταλείπω (G2641) me," is when he was made sin, Why else would he at that time have felt forsaken? Then he said, "It (whatever, "it," was) is finished and then said, "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit:" and he was dead.

That's when Jesus died for our sins. He had just been talking moments before that.

Then Acts 2:31 and 27 the prophet David states that by resurrection (Out of the dead) the soul of him would not be (G2641, see above) in Hades nor the flesh of him see corruption.

Is that not what the Spirit of Truth says?

I believe from James 1:15, "It," of, "it is finished," is Christ being made sin and then giving his life for out sin.


Everybody jump in the water is fine.