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Featured Christ's Death

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by JonC, Mar 3, 2023.

  1. Silverhair

    Silverhair Well-Known Member

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    Two points 1] I was referring to Romans 5:10 in my post & 2] I have G C Morgans commentary in my bible program.
    How many times have you seen on this board that we are saved by His atonement or words to that effect. Actually we have seen some claim that they were chosen/saved before the foundation of the world. So when and how do you think one is saved? When is one regenerated/saved and why?
     
  2. atpollard

    atpollard Well-Known Member

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    The SECOND DEATH “hung in the balance” on the Cross.
    [I just love puns.] ;)
     
  3. Silverhair

    Silverhair Well-Known Member

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    Logically if Christ was made actual sin then He would not be the sinless lamb would He?
    Compare:
    2 Corinthians 5:21 He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him
    to this scripture
    1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.
    1Pe_2:24 and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed.

    Propitiation
    In theology, the atonement or atoning sacrifice {sin offering} offered to God to assuage his wrath and render him propitious to sinners.

    Do you really think that Paul intended to say that Christ was a sinner or that He was a sin offering to appease the wrath of God against sinful man?
     
  4. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    You are correct in what you say people state on this board. If you are asking me personally, I think we are saved when we come to Christ by faith, believing that Jesus is who he claimed to be and believing that he is willing to save us personally and that he is able to do so because of what he did in his life and in his death and resurrection.

    As far as the timing, I believe that you can drive yourself nuts over the logic if you wish. I do think that you are probably regenerated or born again before you believe, which is why many of us are just going along and at some point it all seems clear to us and we start being intensely interested in Christ whereas before we were not interested. It's like a light came on. But I do not see why someone who believes faith came before being born again would not be just as much of a Christian. It may surprise you but Owen himself did not like to assert too strongly the order of salvation.
     
  5. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Where does Hosea and Job speak of Him who knew no sin being made sin?
     
  6. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Lol....probably.
    I agree.
    Post the verse and let's discuss it.
     
  7. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    Paul intended to say what Paul said: Christ was made sin.

    He said what he meant and he meant what he said.

    Christ's sinlessness is precisely what allowed him to embody the sin of others. There is no contradiction.
     
  8. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    I was talking about sin having a tangible manifestation in the spiritual world.
     
  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I was talking about Christ being made sin.
     
  10. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    You said it: "sin".
     
  11. Silverhair

    Silverhair Well-Known Member

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    Now I can agree with much of what you say but the being saved before you believe is a tad to far for me. The bible is quite clear on that point, hear, then believe what you have heard, then you are saved. Ephesians 1:13 and why would someone call on the Lord if they did not think that He could save them Romans 10:13.

    I think that the order of salvation is stated quite clearly by Paul
    Romans 10:14 How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher?

    Note the order Paul describes here.
    1) The saved are those who call on the name of the Lord.
    2) They call because they believe.
    3) They believe because they heard.
    4) They heard because a preacher shared the Gospel.
    Working backwards, Gospel → Hearing → Believing → Confession/Calling → Salvation.

    What Paul says here is clear. The Gospel is preached, people hear it, believe it, call on God and are saved. Sorry if that doesn’t fit into the Reformed-Calvinist scenario.
     
  12. Silverhair

    Silverhair Well-Known Member

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    Then you must have a different understanding of what being made something means.
     
  13. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    We've talked about this before and I just don't think we have it in us to desire to come to Christ. What changes us on this is something the Holy Spirit does to us. Therefore I lean to a Calvinistic system that allows for that. I will not go along with a system that does not truly make an offer of the gospel to everyone and does not say that anyone who comes will be saved. But a good part of Calvinism does that - but not all by any means.
     
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  14. Alan Gross

    Alan Gross Well-Known Member

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    As if 7&8 aren't the same, in the previous numbering.

    After 6 in this numbering 7&8 must again be Separation of Soul and Spirit, which is Death.

    How is this redemption different in application? There is none.

    The Surety stepped aside and didn't perform/ which would have been impossible for Christ and the Testator would not execute the Covenant of Grace.

    Mercy and truth did not met together; righteousness and peace have not kissed each other.

    Again, that would be impossible for the Father's Perfect Surety and Testator.
     
    #54 Alan Gross, Mar 4, 2023
    Last edited: Mar 4, 2023
  15. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Exactly. But which definition of "sin" was Christ made?

    The OT חַטָּאת? But then which definition? "burnt offering" or "disobedience to God's will"?

    Or should we use the 8th Century BC Greek definition of "missing the mark" as in losing in a battle?

    Or should we use the Jewish Greek definition of "disobedience to God"?

    Or should we use the Greek definition in literature of an inner movement leading to death or a tragic event?
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    They are the same.

    I make the distinction because some misunderstand Christ as paying for our sins by dying a spiritual type of death when He was separated from God. Pointing out that Christ couldn't have been separated from God when He committed His Spirit to the Father means those who view that as our redemption do not believe we were actually redeemed by Christ's death.

    Historically Christians viewed the Christ's suffering on the cross as suffering the inflections of the world, but His death as what ultimately redeemed man.

    The form of Christianity that took root in the 16th and early 17th Century holds a very different view of God and of the Cross.
     
  17. Silverhair

    Silverhair Well-Known Member

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    So if man does not have it in himself to desire to come to Him then why does God tell us to seek Him? Jeremiah 29:13 And note it is not just a casual type of seeking but a diligent one, but it is still the person that does the seeking.

    Yes I agree it is something that the Holy Spirit does. He convicts man of His sin. John 16:8-9 Because all man are convicted some will be receptive to the gospel message. But did you notice that He convicts the world, all men, not just some. So all men have the chance to trust in God.

    You say that you cannot go along with a system that does not truly make an offer of the gospel to everyone and does not say that anyone who comes will be saved. But that would exclude Calvinism from those that you could go along with. The offer of salvation in Calvinism cannot be a well meant offer for all as it has exclusions built into it. To make an offer of salvation knowing that the vast majority can not respond to it is, in simple terms, dishonest. Are you saying that God is being dishonest in the offer of salvation?

    Under Calvinism only those that are included in the Unconditional Election will partake of the Limited Atonement and will be drawn to God by His Irresistible Grace. So all men do not have an equal chance to know or trust in God. Are you saying you do not agree with the TULIP understanding of Sorteriology?

    Your last comment raised a question, what part of Calvinism makes a good faith offer and which does not do so in your view?
     
  18. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    The verse says "sin"; not "sin offering".
     
  19. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Yes. But words have meanings.

    "Sin" means:

    1. Burnt offering (KJV translation of sin")
    2. Offense (KJV translation of "sin")
    3. Inner movement leading to death or a tragic event (Greek definition of hamartia)
    4. Missing the mark, i.e. target (8th Century BC definition of hamartia.
    5. Disobedience to God's Law (1st Century Jewish definition of hamartia)
    6. Fault (KJV definition of "sin")
    7. A Crime (KJV definition of "sin" when against man)
    8. Punishment for a crime (KJV translation of sin)

    If you do not know what word means then you are unable to offer a meaningful response. We all agree "sin" is a good translation.
     
  20. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    Again, for the 3rd and last time dear brother, he became a serpent and a worm on the cross once he became the physical embodiment of sin. That (serpent, worm) illustrates what Paul meant by "sin".
     
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