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Featured Rewriting Scripture

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Mar 29, 2023.

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  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Credentialism is demonic nonsense, truth matters. All of the translations that do not have the rewrites were peer reviewed.
     
  2. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    I too am waiting for the peer reviewed work that Van has done in translating the Bible. Until then, I consider him to have the same skills in interpretation that Joe Smith and Charles Taze Russell had. (Do we really want to talk about demonic nonsense?)

    I too will step away from this thread as it provides no benefit to the reader.
     
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  3. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Not being a Biblical Greek scholar myself I can only guess that when a change is made, they explain why they made the change and other Greek Scholars peer review their work.

    I don’t think simply saying the change is because the current translation supports the doctrines of grace, therefore it must be wrong is a legitimate reason to change the translation.

    peace to you
     
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  4. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    First... Saying that someone is ignorant is not an insult. Using a word like "stupid," however, would be.

    Secondly, I in no way was arguing about whether "to be" can or should be supplied in James 2:5. I merely was pointing out that you did not know about Greek's propensity to imply the verb "to be."

    But, now that you bring it up, what about context affects the supplying of the verb? Whey can't it be that way in James 2:5?

    The Archangel
     
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  5. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    So, if I can't use the word "ignorant," can I say "you lack knowledge" or "you lack understanding," or is that now prohibited too?

    The Archangel
     
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  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not addressing the topic and instead addressing the person's qualifications is simply a fallacious argument.

    Did not God choose the poor to the world (poor in the eyes of humanity) yet rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom promised to those loving God.
     
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  7. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    In reply to your question, I do not mean to be. I'm asking why it's important to you whether or not "is" is in the text or supplied by the translation.

    The Archangel
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    LOL, saying someone is ignorant is a rules violation, an insult and the use of a malicious and fallacious argument.

    Of course adding "to be" alters the text and corrupts it.

    You do not need to know "to be" could be added contextually elsewhere, to know its addition at James 2:5 is precluded by context.
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Here the false claim is that scholars such as those producing the NASB, NET, LEB and WEB do not agree that my examples are in fact rewrites.
     
  10. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    No, not at all. The "topic" I was addressing was your masquerade as someone who has proficiency in Greek, which is a more relevant topic at this point.

    So... you want to replace "to be" with "yet" when the conjunction "yet" is not supplied in the text? Good luck with that.

    The Archangel
     
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  11. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Everyone is ignorant of something. So use of that term as an accusation becomes an insult.
     
  12. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    LOL, "Yet" is the word supplied by a scholarly commentary on the verse.
     
  13. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    The word "ignorant" is a technical term to state that someone lacks knowledge, which you clearly do.

    You know, its funny..... You seem to think that anyone who disagrees with you is insulting you. That's quite problematic for you.

    And adding "yet" doesn't???? Seriously?!

    Supplying any word you wish was there is quite problematic. Implied verbs are a real thing. Implied conjunctions not so much.

    The Archangel
     
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  14. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    Nope.

    The Archangel
     
  15. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    So then cite it.

    The Archangel
     
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  16. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    There is an important point here.
    If posters are not able to point out that @Van lacks any qualifications whatsoever in Greek, then there is a danger that someone might actually believe the nonsense he writes is based on knowledge rather than on speculation.
     
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  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Is "to be" an addition to the actual Greek text of James 2:5? Yes, thus if not italicized an unwarranted rewrite of the text. About how many peer reviewed English translations agree? About 15! (including the NASB, LEB, ASV KJV, and YLT)
     
  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Why, certainly a scholar like yourself would have read the literature.
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Didn't read the link? LOL
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another poster ignoring all the English translations, old and new, that agree that the versions cited contain changed or added words to alter the message. You do not need credentials to read various English translations and take note of the changes and additions.
     
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