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Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Apr 4, 2023.

  1. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Well we're all waiting with baited breath for @Van to tell us why it is clear to him that the ESV translation of Rev. 13:8 is 'agenda driven' and why saying that without explanation is not 'brushing off the experts.'
    If you are guilty of that, surely you will want to share the results of your investigation, searching out and thorough inquiry?
     
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  2. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    @AustinC,
    If I have counted correctly, 14 out of a total of 32 Bible versions say it is the Lamb who was slain from the foundation of the world. That means that 18 versions say it is the names that were written in the Book of Life from the foundation of the world.
    Hardly a conclusive number one way or the other. Yet @Van says that the 'vast majority of translators' agree with him.

    As they used to say in Rowan & Martin's 'Laugh in' programme back in the 1960s, "Vairy interesting ................ but stupid!"
     
  3. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Let's just say that Van's 'investigations' are not exactly a plumb line of the truth.
     
  4. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    Please provide documentation of these vast majority of translators.
     
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  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I have already explained this, why ask questions if you ignore the answers. The experts apply the timing, i.e. since the founding of humanity, to when names were not written (and presumably other names were written) in the Lamb's book of life. Note this matches what is clearly said in Revelation 17:8. It matches what your version, the NKJV, says in Revelation 17:8.
     
    #25 Van, Apr 6, 2023
    Last edited: Apr 6, 2023
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    LOL, this poster posts one material false statement after another with impunity. Did I ever say to use different definitions than found in the Lexicon definitions? Nope

    Has this poster simply addressed my qualifications, rather than what I have said? Yes, so another rule violation posted with immunity.

    Are my posts based on knowledge of Greek, or based on knowledge acquired by reading English. Reading English.

    Canadyjd's post reflects malice aforethought rather than bible study. And note all those listed are also agenda driven sycophants. The practice of one group of like minded individuals being allowed to violate truth and decorum should stop.
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You did in post 17.
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Are we to peddle or trade in the word of God? Nope. We are to share His word, undiluted and unadulterated.2 Corinthians 2:17
     
  9. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    So why do you dilute it and adulterate it by demanding that your translation is great, but the translations you hate have an "agenda?"

    Van, at some point you have to point your finger at yourself and admit you are wrong.
     
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  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    2 Timothy 2:15-18 (NASB)
    Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a worker who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. But avoid worldly and empty chatter, for it will lead to further ungodliness, and their talk will spread like gangrene. Among them are Hymenaeus and Philetus, who have gone astray from the truth,

    Here we see we are to be "diligent" to accurately handle the "word of truth." Do we need to hold a man-made degree in Greek to study and share the results of our study? Or do we need to possess "Gnostic knowledge" bestowed in accredited schools? Do we believe in the "priesthood of believers" or in the "priesthood" of Greek speakers or Latin speakers or Hebrew speakers?

    Do we need a "Phd" in Greek to use a "Lexicon" written in English, or use an "Exhaustive Concordance" written in English or a "Reverse Interlinear" written in English? Or could we simply use our discipleship training on how to study God's word?

    When we see claims by those who apparently do not study that you need a degree to study and share, beware such views are the antithesis of Christ's teachings.

    Luke 8:15 (NASB)
    “But the seed in the good soil, these are the ones who have heard the word with a good and virtuous heart, and hold it firmly, and produce fruit with perseverance.

    Are we open to the message of God's word, and can be "hold it firmly" without careful study so we are not blown about by every wind of doctrine?

    How are we to "make disciples" teaching them "all Christ commanded" if we have not learned what those commands are? Do we thirst for the pure word of God, or are we happy to walk in the furrows of other people?
     
  11. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Thank you for acknowledging your posts are not based on the knowledge of Biblical Greek.

    You seem very upset. I have no malice toward you, Van.

    I will leave you to it. Thanks for the conversation.

    peace to you
     
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  12. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Exodus 18:15 (NASB)
    Moses said to his father-in-law, “Because the people come to me to inquire of God."

    Question, if we study God's word, are we not "inquiring of God?" Or should we just accept what the Priests tell us the Latin Bible says.

    Deuteronomy 13:12-14
    “If you hear in one of your cities, which the LORD your God is giving you to live in, anyone saying that some worthless men have gone out from among you and have seduced the inhabitants of their city, saying, ‘Let’s go and serve other gods’ (whom you have not known), then you shall investigate, search out, and inquire thoroughly.

    Question, if we are barred from investigating which biblical view is found in scripture, are we not following "other gods?"
     
  13. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    In order to study scripture using an Exhaustive concordance, Lexicon and Reverse interlinear, you must obtain these study aids.

    The NAS digital exhaustive concordance costs about $30.00. With it you can do word searches.
     
  14. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    So you believe that the ESV translation of Revelation 13:8 is correct?? '...And all who dwell on the earth will worship it, everyone whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who was slain.' So why do you regard said translation as 'agenda driven'?
    The NKJV takes the other side of the argument. 'All who dwell on the earth will worship him, whose names have not been written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.'

    Maybe you need to make your mind up. Or is it because you have suddenly discovered Revelation 17:8 that you have changed your mind?
     
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  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I have already explained that the NET footnote made the connection concerning Revelation 13:8. See post #4.
     
  16. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Your post #4 is simply a rant. It contains no information about your understanding of Revelation 13:8 whatsoever. I don't have a NET footnote, whatever that may be.

    The important point about Revelation 13:8 is whether it is the Lamb who was slain from the foundation of the world, or whether it is the names in the Book of Life that have been written in it from the Foundation of the world (I.e. from the beginning. Genesis 1:1). The NKJV translation is helpful because it preserves the word order of the Greek more closely.
    'All who dwell on the earth will worship him, whose names have not been written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.'
    As it is written there, it appears to support the meaning of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. However, it is important to know that there is no punctuation in 1st Century koine Greek, nor for a long time afterwards. If we add a comma to the sentence, we change its meaning.
    'All who dwell on the earth will worship him, whose names have not been written in the book of life of the Lamb slain, from the foundation of the world.' Now the reading supports the idea of the Lamb's book of life having been written from the foundation of the world.
    So which one is right? 1 Peter 1:20 says that God chose Christ for the task of redeeming His people 'before the foundation of the world' and it might be objected that the phrase 'from the foundation of the world' is too far removed from the verb 'written' to refer to the book of life. If that was all the argument, then we would have to say that it is the Lamb who was slain from the foundation of the world. But as you say, there is a parallel passage in Revelation 17:8. 'And those who dwell on the earth will marvel, whose names are not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world.' The Lamb is not mentioned here so the meaning is clear.

    Now, I expect you want to read these verses as if names are being added to the book of life at various times from the foundation of the world. Not so! The verb 'written,' both in Rev 13:8 and 17:8 is gegraptai, the Perfect Passive of grapho, 'to write.' The Perfect Tense denotes a completed action. The names have been written, once and for all, in the book of life, since the foundation of the world. This is a wonderful comfort to the saints on earth who are experiencing persecutions or the temptations of Satan. Their names are recorded eternally in that book of life, and the Lamb who was slain on their behalf has purchased them to live with Him eternally (Revelation 5:9).

    Concerning the 'agenda-driven' E.S.V., it really makes no difference whether the names are in the book 'before' or 'from' the foundation of the world. They have been there since time began. I expect the ESV translators chose 'before' to correspond with 1 Peter 1:20; Ephesians 1:4 and Titus 1:2.
     
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  17. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    This sounds like a good foundation to start a study.

    I want to make an observation and I hope you don’t take offense.

    The lexicons are dictionaries. They give you the range of possible meanings of words. Like all words, the context determines meaning.

    What I have noticed is that you look at the range of meanings of words in the lexicon. You then claim the word “could be translated” as “such in such”.

    The point I have tried to make to you is that just because a word has a possible meaning doesn’t mean you can apply that meaning to any passage.

    The way in which you attempt to apply meaning to words and phrases is contrary to the context, which makes the translation false.

    peace to you
     
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  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Do you have oñe good case example?
     
  19. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Ok, in Philippians 1:6 you have the Greek word “ev” (in). “He who began a good work in you will complete it…..”

    The Greek word “ev” means “in” or “among”. Since the Greek word for “you” is plural, the word “ev” should be translated “among”, instead of “in”.

    That makes the translation, “He who began a good work among you will complete it….”

    So, instead of the commonly believe verse supporting sanctification, you have a verse supporting perseverance in the midst of persecution.

    And…. since one of the major themes of Philippians is perseverance in the midst of persecution, that translation is consistent with the context.

    BTW, I didn’t come with that in my own. My Greek prof in seminary (an expert) pointed that out to the class.

    peace to you
     
  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    ". . . Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ: . . ."
    ". . . Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work .among you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ: . . ."
    Sanctification begins prior to our regeneration. So either way "in" or "among" preservation is meant. So I am not understanding your point.
     
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